Furthermore, when you attribute man's conscience as being the primary cause (as you have implied) for our inability to live sinless lives
Last time for this, but I never put this strict focus on man's conscience. You've done this. You're creating areas of controversy and lengthy narratives to distract from dealing with Scripture in context to prove the established theories you've chosen and or modified slightly.
As for conscience, please read Paul as he spoke of it to establish that the Jews with the law and circumcision were shown to be not better than Gentiles without written law and circumcision. Their functional consciences are part of what Paul says are involved in their "by nature doing the things of the law" and "showing the work of the law written in their hearts." Just before this Paul speaks of doing good vs. obeying unrighteousness. And please note the singular "work" of the law, meaning God's Law does some degree of work in men.
What we've been discussing is Total Depravity which you've been using to say all men are God-haters and want nothing to do with Him. And you're desiring to prove this by focusing on inherent Good vs. inherent evil. But, is there anyone here that has denied that only God is Good? No one that I've noticed.
The issue is whether fallen men have the faculties that are able to respond to God and the things of God. IF (please note this IF) Paul is speaking of fallen Gentiles responding to Natural Law (from God) in their God given consciences and their doing good (please note the small "g"), then Paul is using this to establish that Jews who are obeying
unrighteousness (aka bad & evil) are not better than Gentiles, then we should see that
doing good (small "g") is not only something [fallen] men can do, but it's a factor in how they are viewed. It does not make them Good (cap "G"), but it shows [fallen] man is capable of doing some good even though he is not Good.
It seems you are predisposed to desire to see all men as God-haters having absolutely no desire to know God or to do anything good as God has established as good. Once again, there is little to no way you can go down through Biblical history and make this case. Men are under sin and Jew is no better than Greek, but the fact remains that men in Adam I had some degree of faith from the first generation post Garden and down through history until Christ. And the fact remains that our Text applies words like righteous and perfect (not PERFECT) to Noah. The Text also seems to apply some value to fallen men
doing righteousness even though it didn't make them RIGHTEOUS.
I've often found this verse interesting in the account of Cornelius:
NKJ Acts 10:34-35 Then Peter opened his mouth and said: "In truth I perceive that God shows no partiality. 35 "But
in every nation whoever fears Him and works righteousness is accepted by Him.
Would you say Cornelius was given faith and saved so God sent Peter to give him the Gospel? Would you deny that Cornelius was unregenerate and in Adam I when he began to fear God and "work righteousness"? What do you do with this statement that God finds such men acceptable (meaning they meet God's approval)? Please note that neither the Text nor I say Cornelius did not need Christ. The plain fact is that this Gentile who feared God and worked righteousness was sent by God an Apostle to give Him the content of necessary faith = Christ, for him to put his faith in.
I think the theology you've adopted denies that certain words are not always to be capitalized and that it skips over both a lot of tensions and very clear statements in the Text that show that not all men are absolute God-haters and have absolutely no interest in God as they understand Him.
All men under sin need God to do in Christ in Spirit what they cannot do. All men under sin are not in the absolute sense God-haters who have absolutely no interest in God who has instilled in all men His existence, and have absolutely no conscious interest in what God has established as good and bad in His creation.
IMO using John4 as I 've previously mentioned where Jesus very emphatically teaches that God is seeking men who will bow in obeisance to Him in Spirit and Truth, coupled with verses like Acts10:35, we begin to see that there are men predisposed to obeying God and obedience to God is part of Biblical Faith.
God knows who they are and is seeking them.
19 The woman said to Him, "Sir, I perceive that You are a prophet. 20 "Our fathers
worshiped/bowed in obeisance on this mountain, and you Jews say that in Jerusalem is the place where one ought to
worship/bow in obeisance." 21 Jesus said to her, "Woman, believe Me, the hour is coming when you will neither on this mountain, nor in Jerusalem,
worship/bow in obeisance to the Father. 22 "You
worship/bow in obeisance to what you do not know; we know what we
worship/bow in obeisance to, for salvation is of the Jews. 23 "But the hour is coming, and now is, when the true
worshipers/ones who bow in obeisance will
worship/bow in obeisance to the Father in spirit and truth; for
the Father is seeking such to worship/bow in obeisance to Him. 24 "God is Spirit, and those who
worship/bow in obeisance to Him must
worship/bow in obeisance in spirit and truth." 25 The woman said to Him, "I know that Messiah is coming " (who is called Christ). "When He comes, He will tell us all things." 26
Jesus said to her, "I who speak to you am He." (Jn. 4:19-26 NKJ)
NKJ Acts 10:34-35 Then Peter opened his mouth and said: "In truth I perceive that God shows no partiality. 35 "But
in every nation whoever fears Him and works righteousness is accepted by Him.