It was odd how KAI was used to connect a present subjunctive and a future indicative. ἀναστήσω tagged subjunctive, might be imperative/subjunctive too, only if it is not tagged. But the thing that throws me is applying it to Stephen. It doesn't work and ἔχῃ is conditional. I am satisfied but unsure about one verb.
Did Jesus Die on The Cross for The Just/Elect/Saved Whose Names Are Written in The Book of Life OR
- Thread starter MerSee
- Start date
-
Christian Chat is a moderated online Christian community allowing Christians around the world to fellowship with each other in real time chat via webcam, voice, and text, with the Christian Chat app. You can also start or participate in a Bible-based discussion here in the Christian Chat Forums, where members can also share with each other their own videos, pictures, or favorite Christian music.
If you are a Christian and need encouragement and fellowship, we're here for you! If you are not a Christian but interested in knowing more about Jesus our Lord, you're also welcome! Want to know what the Bible says, and how you can apply it to your life? Join us!
To make new Christian friends now around the world, click here to join Christian Chat.
Thank you
You go ahead and try to stand in front of God with your weak sins.
Its obvious you are lacking what causes your death
It will be good for you to see the difference. Even though I am not a TR fan, I like Nestle 1904 because it was an "Independent Translation." Most others you get personal view points and opinions. That is not what one should be wanting for a translation. They should want the truth without bias.
I was saying ἀναστήσω was tagged as indicative mood. I need to practice my linguistic vocabulary. But I was wondering if it was tagged wrong as a future verb; we all make mistakes, so I was wondering about it. Even the English of Greek is its own language.
This is an interesting concept to me, but I would the scriptures for it.
Yes… because anyone who comes to Jesus is already of the Elect.
For whom he did foreknow, he also did predestinate to be conformed to the image of his Son, that he might be the firstborn among many brethren. Moreover whom he did predestinate, them he also called: and whom he called, them he also justified: and whom he justified, them he also glorified.
- Romans 8:29-30
Why would he need to be saved from that? Didn't he say that he had the power over the death before he died? Didn't he prove that?
Anyone who comes to Jesus is already of the elect.
Cookin' with gas again, I see.
"All that the Father gives me will come to me." Easy enough to understand.If someone is died, they are not rescued; and this what the Greek means. A rescue from death would be like Enoch. A new body in an instant.
Born again children of God have been "rescued" from far more than the penalty of sin. They have also been saved from the power of sin and eventually from the presence of it.
[QUOTE="7thMoon, post: 5275264, member: 323176"]If someone is died, they are not rescued; and this what the Greek means. A rescue from death would be like Enoch. A new body in an instant.[/QUOTE]
Au contraire! As stated previously, Christ "rescued" himself from the tomb on the third day, didn't he? Will you be able to resuscitate yourself like that when you die?
Au contraire! As stated previously, Christ "rescued" himself from the tomb on the third day, didn't he? Will you be able to resuscitate yourself like that when you die?
N
Niki7
Guest
Huh. I thought death/utter darkness/lake of fire probably was the ultimate.
But people do still sin even though they are believers. Says so in the Bible you know. Well not the Bible that you know in particular, but the Bible.
The bible I know in particular says:
Rom 6:14
14 For sin shall not be your master , because you are not under law, but under grace.
NIV
And, no, the passage does not teach perfectionism.
So, the ultimate benefit of salvation for you is that you escape the death penalty? While this is certainly an awesome element to salvation, I think many Christians believe the greatest aspect is being saved from the presence of sin which which makes it possible to live in God's holy, loving presence for all eternity (Rev 21:27; 22:4, 15)
Everlasting-Grace said:
This makes no sense
Jesus told many. You do not hear because you do not believe.
I do not see in your citation where those without faith cannot hear Jesus ' words. The people He was talking to heard what he said, but they did not believe them, they did not drink them. So, although they heard Jesus' words, they were not benefitted by Jesus words, because the words they heard were not mixed with faith.
This makes no sense
Jesus told many. You do not hear because you do not believe.
I do not see in your citation where those without faith cannot hear Jesus ' words. The people He was talking to heard what he said, but they did not believe them, they did not drink them. So, although they heard Jesus' words, they were not benefitted by Jesus words, because the words they heard were not mixed with faith.
What do you think hina means in this text.? Do you think it is clearly translated in most Bibles? How does reading hina as "in order that/ so that change the meaning of the passage?
Why does "Independent Translation" mean "without personal viewpoints and opinions" ?