Did Jesus Die on The Cross for The Just/Elect/Saved Whose Names Are Written in The Book of Life OR
- Thread starter MerSee
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No, you didn't but you snidely implied it.
Since I'm not a original language scholar, I check multiple translations because my goal is to capture the sense of what the writer is conveying. My goal is not to stroke my own back when I find that my understanding harmonizes with many or most translations in my arsenal, but to actually learn truth. Scripture tells me that I can actually know [absolute] truth -- not perfectly but nonetheless essentially and substantially.
And I did prove my position with the additional passages I cited plus my arguments from God's omniscience, especially. To be omniscient means to have infinite awareness, understanding and insight and to possess instantaneously and spontaneously universal knowledge of all things at once. The Omniscient One never acquires knowledge. He never has to learn. Nor is he ever surprised by new of different knowledge. Nor does he ever forget anything. All knowledge infinitely and innately resides in him. Clearly, you do not believe this about God since you believe that He must adjust his game plan every now and again. He must regroup, as it were. He must examine his options. Therefore, the passages I quoted in Job and Proverbs clearly comport very well with conservative, evangelical understanding of what it means in scripture to be omniscient, as well as with other relevant passages. Whereas your understanding of "omniscience" puts God virtually on the same level as his finite, fallible creatures, which do have to do the things you have mistakenly ascribed to God in earlier posts.
Since I'm not a original language scholar, I check multiple translations because my goal is to capture the sense of what the writer is conveying. My goal is not to stroke my own back when I find that my understanding harmonizes with many or most translations in my arsenal, but to actually learn truth. Scripture tells me that I can actually know [absolute] truth -- not perfectly but nonetheless essentially and substantially.
And I did prove my position with the additional passages I cited plus my arguments from God's omniscience, especially. To be omniscient means to have infinite awareness, understanding and insight and to possess instantaneously and spontaneously universal knowledge of all things at once. The Omniscient One never acquires knowledge. He never has to learn. Nor is he ever surprised by new of different knowledge. Nor does he ever forget anything. All knowledge infinitely and innately resides in him. Clearly, you do not believe this about God since you believe that He must adjust his game plan every now and again. He must regroup, as it were. He must examine his options. Therefore, the passages I quoted in Job and Proverbs clearly comport very well with conservative, evangelical understanding of what it means in scripture to be omniscient, as well as with other relevant passages. Whereas your understanding of "omniscience" puts God virtually on the same level as his finite, fallible creatures, which do have to do the things you have mistakenly ascribed to God in earlier posts.
Life -- especially Eternal Life -- is expressed in terms of rebirth (John 3) and in resurrection language (Col 3:1). The writers of holy writ employed different metaphors to teach us different aspects to a particular truth. In one sense eternal life is analogous to rebirth; in another it's analogous to resurrection, since all mankind is spiritually dead.
So, back to my question: Did Lazarus participate in his own resurrection? Did he contribute anything?
So, back to my question: Did Lazarus participate in his own resurrection? Did he contribute anything?
Life -- especially Eternal Life -- is expressed in terms of rebirth (John 3) and in resurrection language (Col 3:1). The writers of holy writ employed different metaphors to teach us different aspects to a particular truth. In one sense eternal life is analogous to rebirth; in another it's analogous to resurrection, since all mankind is spiritually dead.
So, back to my question: Did Lazarus participate in his own resurrection? Did he contribute anything?
So, back to my question: Did Lazarus participate in his own resurrection? Did he contribute anything?
No, I defined omniscience from a biblical perspective. And all the passages I either cited or quoted (.e.g. Prov 21, Job 42, etc.) are entirely consistent with that biblical definition. No tenet of anything in my theology contradicts another. That's how I know I'm on the right track. The Law of Noncontradiction keeps me on the straight and narrow; for God cannot lie.
Perhaps you should resolve to learn what scripture teaches about this attribute of God; for you obviously do not believe he is all-knowing, and if he's not this then neither can he be all wise.
https://www.gotquestions.org/God-omniscient.html
And then there is this from my non-inspired NIV:
Isa 40:14
14 Whom did the LORD consult to enlighten him,
and who taught him the right way?
Who was it that taught him knowledge
or showed him the path of understanding?
NIV
Perhaps you should resolve to learn what scripture teaches about this attribute of God; for you obviously do not believe he is all-knowing, and if he's not this then neither can he be all wise.
https://www.gotquestions.org/God-omniscient.html
And then there is this from my non-inspired NIV:
Isa 40:14
14 Whom did the LORD consult to enlighten him,
and who taught him the right way?
Who was it that taught him knowledge
or showed him the path of understanding?
NIV
Because of Adam, everyone born afterwards began life in sin. Which even God knows is not fair. Everyone is being punished over the actions of one person. This is why Jesus was sent to bring salvation to the world, as in ALL people.
John 3:17 clarifies this point.
17 For God sent not the Son into the world to condemn the world, but that the world might be saved through him.
We know this verse cannot be "only" for the saved because they are saved, they are not in the category of "might be saved." So we know God died for all humans so they "might be saved."
Therefore, your post is illogical.
John 3:17 clarifies this point.
17 For God sent not the Son into the world to condemn the world, but that the world might be saved through him.
We know this verse cannot be "only" for the saved because they are saved, they are not in the category of "might be saved." So we know God died for all humans so they "might be saved."
Therefore, your post is illogical.
Even in the time of Noah, God gave the world a chance to be saved. Noah preached for 120 years, built the Ark before them, even as Noah was loading the Ark they had a chance to enter and rejected.
John 3:17 For God sent not the Son into the world to condemn the world, but that the world might be saved through him...
...shows God was the same as in the Days of Noah and will continue being the same until His Return.
John 3:17 For God sent not the Son into the world to condemn the world, but that the world might be saved through him...
...shows God was the same as in the Days of Noah and will continue being the same until His Return.
