As in the days of Noah... ALL flesh had CORRUPTED itself

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Jun 2, 2022
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Romans 5:12-17

New King James Version



All sin is ascribed to Adam. He was responsible for, and over all. That doesn't mean women are sinless.

That was the WHOLE necessity for a virgin birth.

Death in Adam, Life in Christ
12 Therefore, just as through one man sin entered the world, and death through sin, and thus death spread to all men, because all sinned— 13 (For until the law sin was in the world, but sin is not imputed when there is no law. 14 Nevertheless death reigned from Adam to Moses, even over those who had not sinned according to the likeness of the transgression of Adam, who is a type of Him who was to come. 15 But the free gift is not like the [a]offense. For if by the one man’s offense many died, much more the grace of God and the gift by the grace of the one Man, Jesus Christ, abounded to many. 16 And the gift is not like that which came through the one who sinned. For the judgment which came from one offense resulted in condemnation, but the free gift which came from many [b]offenses resulted in justification. 17 For if by the one man’s [c]offense death reigned through the one, much more those who receive abundance of grace and of the gift of righteousness will reign in life through the One, Jesus Christ.)
That still doesn't tell me how being born of the woman - Mary means there was no sin transmitted, the Catholic get around this by saying Mary had a virgin birth and it is the act of intercourse that produces the sin, or something like that - it doesn't matter anyway, I was just wondering if there was a more credible explanation for the inherited sin thing. It is something we have all been brought up to believe but my understanding of the Bible tells me that we are all responsible for our won sins, not the sins of others. Thanks for the reply
 

PaulThomson

Well-known member
Oct 29, 2023
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To answer this question we have to closely examine Genesis 6, the fallen angels that mated with human women, their progeny the Nephilim, and the proclamation 4 There were giants (Nephilim) on the earth in those days, AND ALSO AFTERWARD,..
Not necessarily. It is possible to read the text as describing women seduced into worshipping demons and allowing them to enter their bodies and to upgrade in the womb the genetic code of children they conceived from men, so that the children were upsized and demonically possessed from birth by "Legions" and capable of manifesting superhuman strength. There is no need to read into the text angels having sexual intercourse with human women. and producing half-breeds.
 

ZNP

Well-known member
Sep 14, 2020
36,332
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That still doesn't tell me how being born of the woman - Mary means there was no sin transmitted, the Catholic get around this by saying Mary had a virgin birth and it is the act of intercourse that produces the sin, or something like that - it doesn't matter anyway, I was just wondering if there was a more credible explanation for the inherited sin thing. It is something we have all been brought up to believe but my understanding of the Bible tells me that we are all responsible for our won sins, not the sins of others. Thanks for the reply
this is essentially the same question as how come when Jesus touched the dead boy His nazarite vow was not broken. By law if you touch someone that is dead your vow is broken and you must begin again. So when Jesus touched him something had to give way, and it was death, hence we know that Jesus is the resurrection and the life, He conquers death. The same is true of when Jesus was born of a virgin. She was a sinner, she had the flesh, she had the sinful nature, but He was born of God, He had the resurrection and the life, He was light and in Him was no darkness at all.

Her vessel had obviously not been damaged by Satan and so Jesus could be born of a virgin. The damage that Satan and sin have done is not permanent, that is why Jesus can pay the price, redeem us, and we can be saved from sin.
 

Cameron143

Well-known member
Mar 1, 2022
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Romans 5:12-17

New King James Version



All sin is ascribed to Adam. He was responsible for, and over all. That doesn't mean women are sinless.

That was the WHOLE necessity for a virgin birth.

Death in Adam, Life in Christ
12 Therefore, just as through one man sin entered the world, and death through sin, and thus death spread to all men, because all sinned— 13 (For until the law sin was in the world, but sin is not imputed when there is no law. 14 Nevertheless death reigned from Adam to Moses, even over those who had not sinned according to the likeness of the transgression of Adam, who is a type of Him who was to come. 15 But the free gift is not like the [a]offense. For if by the one man’s offense many died, much more the grace of God and the gift by the grace of the one Man, Jesus Christ, abounded to many. 16 And the gift is not like that which came through the one who sinned. For the judgment which came from one offense resulted in condemnation, but the free gift which came from many [b]offenses resulted in justification. 17 For if by the one man’s [c]offense death reigned through the one, much more those who receive abundance of grace and of the gift of righteousness will reign in life through the One, Jesus Christ.)
Sin being ascribed to Adam doesn't remove Eve's sinful nature.
 

PennEd

Senior Member
Apr 22, 2013
13,572
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Sin being ascribed to Adam doesn't remove Eve's sinful nature.
No it doesn’t. Women receive that sin nature from their fathers. They do not pass it to their children. Their husbands do.

This is why there had to be a virgin birth. Jesus’s Father is not contaminated by human XY chromosomes.

From Seth onward, all humans are born in Adam’s fallen image, not Eves.


Genesis 5:3

New King James Version
3 And Adam lived one hundred and thirty years, and begot a son in his own likeness, after his image, and named him Seth.

That’s why Jesus had to come in the first place.
 

Everlasting-Grace

Well-known member
Dec 18, 2021
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If sin is inherited which I do not see anywhere in the Bible, how can it not pass to females but only pass to males? What is the explanation for this from those that believe in inherited sin ? Just wondering.
It is just the egg that is not tainted..
 

Everlasting-Grace

Well-known member
Dec 18, 2021
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That still doesn't tell me how being born of the woman - Mary means there was no sin transmitted, the Catholic get around this by saying Mary had a virgin birth and it is the act of intercourse that produces the sin, or something like that - it doesn't matter anyway, I was just wondering if there was a more credible explanation for the inherited sin thing. It is something we have all been brought up to believe but my understanding of the Bible tells me that we are all responsible for our won sins, not the sins of others. Thanks for the reply
Because it was the HS who seeded the egg, Not the son of adam..
 

Cameron143

Well-known member
Mar 1, 2022
18,893
6,488
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No it doesn’t. Women receive that sin nature from their fathers. They do not pass it to their children. Their husbands do.

This is why there had to be a virgin birth. Jesus’s Father is not contaminated by human XY chromosomes.

From Seth onward, all humans are born in Adam’s fallen image, not Eves.


Genesis 5:3

New King James Version
3 And Adam lived one hundred and thirty years, and begot a son in his own likeness, after his image, and named him Seth.

That’s why Jesus had to come in the first place.
Sure. But Matthew 1:20 says what was conceived in her was of the Holy Spirit. Obviously this can be interpreted variously. But to me it suggests that conception was totally in the purview of the Spirit.
 

cv5

Well-known member
Nov 20, 2018
22,754
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No it doesn’t. Women receive that sin nature from their fathers. They do not pass it to their children. Their husbands do.
I concur.
Which is the "seminal" reason for the Last Adam foreordained from before the world began.
 
Dec 18, 2023
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God "chose" Israel just as He chose the Apostles. Neither of whom will be "lost".
he chose to call Jacob Isreal which was one Hebrew. So therefore the hebrews must have become Isreal .

That still leaves the Jews
 

Gideon300

Well-known member
Mar 18, 2021
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the hebrews preach the gospel of Jesus the Jews don't
A jew is a hebrew.

Jew is the name given to the people who were in Judah, or the southern kingdom. By the time of Christ, people from all 12 tribes lived in judah.
The Northern Kingdom inhabitants were pretty much absorbed into the cultures of various nations that invaded them. Some say that the 10 tribes were dispersed around the world. I'm not convinced. What was the Northern Kingdom became Samaria. As the Bible says, Jews despised the Samaritans as they were considered apostate. Samaria was in between Galilee and Judea. Most Jews avoided the region of Samaria. The woman at the well was intrigued. She said to Jesus, "You Jews........" No love lost between Samaritans and Jews, that's for sure.