Since when should the Creator violate his covenants to align with your faulty doctrine and baseless opinion?But there is no covenant that singles out any nation.
Since when should the Creator violate his covenants to align with your faulty doctrine and baseless opinion?But there is no covenant that singles out any nation.
So tell us what covenants exist.The profound distinction of the Church age escapes you. As does every other rank and order of the first resurrection.
Oh and another thing: you are (as usual) wrong in declaring that only ONE COVENANT is presently in force. It is evident that you MUST NOT be packing the gear to make such an erroneous assertion to begin with. So delving into the matter is a further waste of my time.
BTW......the difference between careful and accurate Biblical scholarship and baseless absurd useless opinion could not be more dichotomous than what can be observed on this thread.
What covenant does not find Christ as its fulfillment? What covenant allows for a partition to be placed between people groups?Since when should the Creator violate his covenants to align with your faulty doctrine and baseless opinion?
Sure nations will exist. But there is no covenant that singles out any nation. God did covenant with 1 nation under the old covenant. No such covenant exists today. Why?
The words blessing and curse tell you it is the old covenant. It no longer exists. Anything eternal in that covenant was pointing to the new covenant and is fulfilled in Christ. All the temporal promises had to be fulfilled in order for the covenant to come to an end.Yes, there is a covenant that singles out the nation of Israel. God made a covenant with the children of Israel that they land of Israel would be theirs forever.
In Matthew 24:31, to make good on that Covenant, he will gather the house of Israel still scattered into the nations back to the land of Israel.
31 And he shall send his angels with a great sound of a trumpet, and they shall gather together his elect from the four winds, from one end of heaven to the other.
Deuteronomy 30:
1 And it shall come to pass, when all these things are come upon thee, the blessing and the curse, which I have set before thee, and thou shalt call them to mind among all the nations, whither the LORD thy God hath driven thee,
2 And shalt return unto the LORD thy God, and shalt obey his voice according to all that I command thee this day, thou and thy children, with all thine heart, and with all thy soul;
3 That then the LORD thy God will turn thy captivity, and have compassion upon thee, and will return and gather thee from all the nations, whither the LORD thy God hath scattered thee.
4 If any of thine be driven out unto the outmost parts of heaven, from thence will the LORD thy God gather thee, and from thence will he fetch thee:
5 And the LORD thy God will bring thee into the land which thy fathers possessed, and thou shalt possess it; and he will do thee good, and multiply thee above thy fathers.
No. But it was coming to a head in 70 AD. The old covenant didn't vanish overnight. It took time for the new covenant to fully come in. The gospels and epistles needed to be written and the church to be extended to the known world. Then, at this point, Jesus said the end would come...to the end of the age.^ So @Cameron143 , you believe that Matthew 25:31-34,41 "ye blessed / ye cursed" [/Matt19:28 time-wise and with Lk22:30] was completely "fulfilled" [done / finished] at the time of the Cross?? (or Cross / Resurrection?) Not a moment past this point?
Not sure your point here.Heb7:22 - "By so much also, Jesus has become the guarantee [/a surety] of a better covenant."
No. This happened in the intertestamental period as Jewish believers were scattered. They took the gospel with them as the left Jerusalem for safer lodgings.^ Rev7:4 "the 144,000 of all the tribes of the children of Israel" existed (and did their role here in this text) before the Cross [/Resurrection]??
Just wondering... how that can be a thing? = )
The Mt. Sinai covenant did not atone for their sins, as though they never happened. The new covenant in Christ does. The Mt. Sinai covenant waxed old as it was a stop-gap measure until Jesus the messiah shed his blood for the atonement of their sins.The words blessing and curse tell you it is the old covenant. It no longer exists.
Don't know off the top of my head. Would have to look at it. How about the answers to my questions?^ @Cameron143, when did "the 12" do this: "[shall] sit on 12 thrones, judgING the 12 tribes of Israel" ? (Matt19:28 [parallel TIMING with Matt25:31-34] / Lk22:30,16,18)
How are provisions of a covenant still active when the covenant no longer exists?The Mt. Sinai covenant did not atone for their sins, as though they never happened. The new covenant in Christ does. The Mt. Sinai covenant waxed old as it was a stop-gap measure until Jesus the messiah shed his blood for the atonement of their sins.
But that does not delete the promises God made to Israel in the Mt. Sinai covenant regarding the land of Israel being given to the children of Israel as theirs forever.
Ezekiel 39:28 and Matthew 24:31 bears that out. Both of those passages are about the final in-gathering of the house of Israel to the land of Israel.
btw, the promises in Deuteronomy 30 are a continuation of the covenant of Deuteronomy 29.
Deuteronomy 29:
1 These are the words of the covenant, which the LORD commanded Moses to make with the children of Israel in the land of Moab, beside the covenant which he made with them in Horeb.
^ @Cameron143, when did "the 12" do this: "[shall] sit on 12 thrones, judgING the 12 tribes of Israel" ? (Matt19:28 [parallel TIMING with Matt25:31-34] / Lk22:30,16,18)
Clueless village idiot or brazen God defying heretic?naaa i may have had some difference of opinion with cam but I've never had him down as a heretic.
aawwww Mr meany pants.Clueless village idiot or brazen God defying heretic?
The evidence is mounting one way or the other.
Scrupulously parsing scripture to measure the truth is not his bag.^ @Cameron143 ,
And why does Rev4:1 say this:
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3708 [e]
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behold
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a door
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was standing open
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voice
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first
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[after what things?? It seems to me that you think Rev7:4, for example, takes place BEFORE chpts 2-3, no?]
Parts of the Mt Sinai covenant are forever. There is plenty of observable confirmation. Israel a nation again back in the land, on May 14, 1948. Jerusalem back in the hands of the Jews in 1967. The tensions between Israel and the surrounding Muslim nations.How are provisions of a covenant still active when the covenant no longer exists?