The Error of KJV-Onlyism
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What was Hosea told by God to name his children by Gomer?
Gomer bore a son in Hosea 1:4, where it says,
And the Lord said to him, “Call his name Jezreel, for in just a little while I will punish the house
of Jehu for the blood of Jezreel, and I will put an end to the kingdom of the house of Israel.”
She conceived again and bore a daughter. And the Lord said to him, “Call her name No Mercy,
for I will no more have mercy on the house of Israel, to forgive them at all.” (Hosea 1:6)
When she had weaned No Mercy, she conceived and bore a son. And the Lord said, “Call his
name Not My People, for you are not my people, and I am not your God.” (Hosea 1:8-9)
These were God's judgments against Israel for their WHORING after other gods/false idols.
Oh! Unless you are (a) Bible_Highlighter...
In Isaiah 20 God says Isaiah went about naked for 3 years as a sign against Egypt and Ethiopia. Isaiah probably ignored it and actually wore a 3 piece suit.
Yes, I mentioned that directive from God to Isaiah earlier...
but, a Bible_Highlighter would surely say it wasn't so!
Sorry to steal your thunder. I'll repurpose it for you....According to Isaiah 20 and @Magenta, Isaiah....
Eh? You did not steal my thunder. You added lightning! .
I am just telling you what one side primarily believes, which should trouble you.
You said:
You need a specific verse or word connection to prove she was only promiscuous.
You said:
So now you are saying that Gomer is a harlot? That is a prostitute. Even the word "harlot" in the Bible is used as a prostitute (Especially Genesis 38 and Judges 16.
But yes, Rahab was a prostitute. Most Christians know this basic fact. But she was not a practicing prostitute when she married. She gave that life up to serve the Living God. A person can repent, and change their ways. This is not a problem. We are talking about how most of Christianity holds to the view that God told Hosea to marry a practicing prostitute. Now, if she had a change of heart, that would be different.
You said:
Yes, most Christians are familiar with the Ruth narrative.
The point here is that Gomer was a woman of idolatry and not prostitution.
She would have had to deny serving those false idols and serve the one true God in order to marry Hosea.
You said:
Not sure your point in bringing this up.
You said:
Why would you say that? I am not confusing the two. You would only be assuming that I am.
Let’s understand something here, I believe Isaiah 20 is true in what it states. It is the rendering in the King James Bible.
But a prophet being naked is not the same thing as being a prostitute.
God telling Hosea to marry a practicing prostitute would be a violation of God's goodness and ways.
Yet, this is the belief pushed by Modern scholars, many Christians, and select Bible translations.
The King James Bible does not express to us about God telling Hosea to marry a prostitute.
Side Note:
As for Isaiah's nakedness: We do not know if he was allowed to cover his private parts or not. The chapter makes more of a big deal of the exposing of his buttox.
Already you are changing the text.
I don’t see that, and the text says nothing about “our very existence”.
Your position makes no sense in light of the three words, “from this generation”. Mine does. There is nothing whatsoever in the text about the written form of the text… not even a hint. The whole Psalm is about God caring for the oppressed; why would the words about preservation suddenly refer His words and not the people? Frankly, that’s silly.
You did not provide a proper citation, and your argument actually supports my position.
I find it odd that other KJV-only folks aren’t jumping in to support you on this. Perhaps yours is the anomaly view.
Well I guess we can be confident that if people would stick with the KJV we would never have aberrant and heretical groups starting.
Wait…
you are confusing yourself about the timing of Gomers harlotry.
Its on you. First you say she isnt then she is. Whoredom and playing the harlot are pretty much the same thing. Prostitution.
Going after idols is prostuting oneself because people say they prefer money or Mammon or whatever instead of God. They worship for the money, not with love in their hearts.
Why cant you see it. OT times were dfferent from NT. God was making a point about Israel. Of course God doesnt want believers to do that, because of what Hosea learned through his marriage to Gomer. People still do it anyway, but its a warning.
Scripture is not saying Hosea ever fornicated with Gomer. Gomer was the unfaithful one, Hosea was not. Gomer didnt have to agree to anything, she just married Hosea, like so many unbelievers still do, deceiving him and not intending to stay faithful.
Just read the whole book, dont have to spell it out for you. Just because whoredom and harlotry is a different word to prostitution shouldnt confuse anyone if you know the meaning.
Why should it trouble me what God says? God did it for a reason.
God is good and He also is severe...but He also has mercy on His people (who were not acting like his people)
I dont tell God what to do and make Him not God and tell Him he cant do this and that and claim that he violates his own ways. He is God! . I am the clay not the potter.
Why should it trouble me what God says? God did it for a reason.
God is good and He also is severe...but He also has mercy on His people (who were not acting like his people)
I dont tell God what to do and make Him not God and tell Him he cant do this and that and claim that he violates his own ways. He is God! . I am the clay not the potter.
A number of people has and he still denies it says what it does.
Where do you get your statistics? .
God told Hosea to marry a whore than.
Happy?
what is it with people. Is it an objection to the word prostitute or people just dont want whore to mean what it does. Especially when Gomer conceives three children to her lovers but is married to Hosea.
Happy?
what is it with people. Is it an objection to the word prostitute or people just dont want whore to mean what it does. Especially when Gomer conceives three children to her lovers but is married to Hosea.
A number of people has and he still denies it says what it does.
Where do you get your statistics? .
I’ve talked to various Christians over the years on this. I talked to them on different Christian forums, and to Christians at work. Whenever you search for an article on this topic online, the view that ”God told Hosea to marry a prostitute” is the most prominent in the search results.
Not in the King James Bible.
You said:
It doesn't even say this in any Modern Bible that I am aware of. The KJB and other translations say that the three children were a result of Hosea and Gomer.
To begin with, it is important to realize this command could be understood two different ways.
First, and more likely, this command could be one of anticipation. In other words, God may have
instructed Hosea to marry a woman who would later become unfaithful to him. The other possibility
is that the command was for Hosea to marry someone already known as a prostitute.
^^ That's what gotquestions has to say on the matter. Further:
The prophet Hosea was commanded to marry an unfaithful wife,
and this set up a model of Israel’s broken relationship with God.
But in your mind it is not possible God would command such an evil thing.
Did you ever address the fact that God had Isaiah naked for a few years?
Surely you see that as evil also?
understood brother I appreciate your discernment to
I know you have a side of you that is 99 percent most of the time very discerning for the words you say to others I have noticed,
If I could reach that level of 100 percent it would be a miracle because the hardest thing to do is build a a house that won't stand in certain ideologies.
I find with some folk they know best more than anyone else and are not open to interpretation.
The pride before the fall is every where friend,
But how do you address it or speak to it,