What would that be?And I see KJV proponents on this thread that disagree on a VERY,VERY, VERY important doctrine. The TOP one IMO.
What would that be?And I see KJV proponents on this thread that disagree on a VERY,VERY, VERY important doctrine. The TOP one IMO.
There is a big difference between what was written in the original manuscripts and any translation that came after that. Fundamentalist and evangelical Christians have consistently claimed inspiration only for the originals. The fact that there are many words in italics in the KJV indicates that it was necessary for the translators to clarify many verses since there is a big difference between Hebrew and English and Greek and English.
This in no way diminishes the excellency of the KJV. It can rightly be called "the Word of God" in English, since it does not deviate from the originals as transmitted through the Masoretic and Received texts, and finally printed after the invention of printing. Christians have trusted this Bible for over 400 years. Even the Geneva Bible did not gain this status.
Your point might be valid if this were a democratic issue, but it isn't. There are good reasons why the count of manuscripts in each type is what it is, and good reasons why the statistics are essentially irrelevant.
Oh, so all those lies you told about me get brushed under the proverbial rug
because you have studied something else for years? Wow. Thanks for nothing.
And this is why KJ onlyists are despised by many. May God open your eyes.
1 Thessalonians 5:
22 Abstain from all appearance of evil.
This verse is referring to 'all appearance of evil' in the sense of:
"Do not allow yourself to be in any situation whereby it even appears that you are doing something evil."
It is not specifically about your physical appearance having the resemblance of "something evil"; rather, it is about the 'appearance' of you doing something 'evil'.
And, if it is not corrupted, the overall intent of the meaning is:
"Not only should you avoid [actually] doing evil - you should avoid even the 'appearance' of doing anything evil."
And then along comes another and claims non-KJ onlyists do not believe the Bible. It really gets ridiculous.
While they make more assertions, none of which they have any way of knowing the truth of.
Well, you know how it is. Now I have to start researching this movement a bit. Looks like you are familiar with this KJV only stuff!
An article I found:
It is perhaps ironic that the KJV 1611 translators themselves, if they were alive today, would not survive for long in the "KJV-Only" camp. They spoke out about the folly of relying on only one reading of the biblical text to the exclusion of other possible renderings. In fact, they criticized Pope Sixtus V (1585-1590) because he didn't allow variant readings in the margins of his version of the Latin Vulgate. They wrote, "They that are wise had rather have their judgments at liberty in differences of readings, than to be captivated to one, when it might be the other."
The KJV 1611 translators also encouraged the use of a "variety of translations" in order to ascertain the meaning of Scripture. Here's what they said: "Therefore as S. Augustine saith, that variety of Translations is profitable for the finding out of the sense of the Scriptures: so diversity of signification and sense in the margin, where the text is not so clear, must needs do good, yea, is necessary, as we are persuaded." It is clear that the KJV-Only advocates make claims about the KJV that even the translators themselves did not make.
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Should have said, he actually acted as if I believed the Bible was originally written in Elizabethan English...
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Oh, so all those lies you told about me get brushed under the proverbial rug
because you have studied something else for years? Wow. Thanks for nothing.
And this is why KJ onlyists are despised by many. May God open your eyes.
The difference is that Jesus is not referring only to that one statement.
I will not try to convince you.
I am simply of the confidence that I use a fully accurate, complete Bible that's been preserved as God intended.
There's no NIV Onlyists.
There's no NAS Onlyists.
There's no ESB onlyits?
Why?
They use multiple bibles from what I've seen.
They don't believe God when He said,
"It is written, Man shall not live by bread alone, but by every word that proceedeth out of the mouth of God."
Nope, English has two words for two holidays. The other languages modified Passover and used it for English. But according to the chart you showed, these languages each have two words/expressions, one for each holiday.Nope.
Passover and Easter are merely synonyms that both refer to the Jewish Passover.
In various languages, we can see that Easter is taken from the word Pascha.
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Reminds of the same "argument" the recruiter for Bob Jones University used when I was in highschool. I wasn't very smart, but was able to figure out his "reasoning" against inerrancy and preservation in about 5 seconds. BogusI don't know? Higher IQs? Not adhering to a nonsensical premise that one English translation is THE way God 'preserves His word?'
Non-sequitur. The idea that 'Man shall not live by bread alone, but by every word that proceedeth out of the mouth of God.' means that one translation into the English language is foolish. It doesn't make any sense. The verse you quote does not say that.
KJV-onlyism is not part of the 'faith once delivered to the saints.' The Bible does not teach it.
Actually that's Jesus I quoted.Another lie from a KJ onlyist.
I have yet to meet one.More assumptions from a KJ onlyist. You have no way of knowing if your statements are true or not.
????Hilarious. As if God spoke Elizabethan English to the Hebrew/Israeli prophets, and New Testament writers.
Should have said, he actually acted as if I believed the Bible was originally written in Elizabethan English...
LOL. Not believing what someone else believes does not translate into me not believing the Bible, and your saying it is so is quite simply ridiculous any way you look at it. The verse given by another was not either of those you cite here, but from Matthew 4, Deuteronomy 8, and Luke 4. I remember the panel I have for it, done by request for another member. I do not recall you apologizing earlier. Just saying that it is not nor cannot be again, if it never happened once already. You declared I believed a slew of things I never said a thing about. I did let you know I am not against the KJV, as I use it in my panels sometimes, have altered panels to have that translation upon request, and recall it when thinking of or trying to recall a particular verse. And I prefer it at times. None of that meant anything to you, apparently. So much for me trying to be nice to you! How you arrived at the conclusions you did is beyond me since as I said, I made no comments about any of the things you claimed I believed. Carry this type of inclination into how you read the Bible and it is no wonder people question your adherence to one version to the exclusion of others, especially after the research @Kroogz just shared with us about those who complied the KJV specifically relating to this matter. They encouraged the use of a "variety of translations" in order to ascertain the meaning of Scripture. And that is exactly what I do.@Magenta
So again, you have my humblest apologies if I said something that does not actually reflect what you actually believe.
Just know that if you don’t believe certain verses should be in the Bible like 1 John 5:7, or the ending of Mark, etcetera, then it would not be incorrect for KJB believers to claim that you are not believing what they believe is the Bible. They believe the real Bible is the KJB. So from their perspective they would be right. From your perspective this would not be the case. But I am not sure of your position here.