But recall, verse 4 is saying of the Thessalonians (in their day): "in all your persecutionS and tribulationS THAT YE ENDURE [PRESENT tense]"...
... so the text goes on to say,
2Th 1:4
So G5620 that we G2248 ourselves G846 glory G2744 in G1722 you G5213 in G1722 the churches G1577 of God G2316 for G5228 your G5216 patience G5281 and G2532 faith G4102 in G1722 all G3956 your G5216 persecutions G1375 and G2532 tribulations G2347 that G3739 ye endure: G430
Which is a manifest token G1730 of the righteous G1342 judgment G2920 of God, G2316 that G1519 ye G5209 may be counted worthy G2661 of the kingdom G932 of God, G2316 for G5228 which G3739 ye G3958 ➔ also G2532 suffer: G3958
Seeing G1512 it is a righteous thing G1342 with G3844 God G2316 to recompense G467 tribulation G2347 to them that trouble G2346 you; G5209
And G2532 to you G5213 who are troubled G2346 rest G425 with G3326 us, G2257 [...]
So, back in their day, they were already experiencing "persecutionS and tribulationS" (v.4)...
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Do you think that is relevant to the discussion? The church, which is being persecuted, will receive rest at the revelation of Jesus, when He comes. The sufferings were going on when Paul wrote the letter, when they received it, and there has been persecution throughout church history and until Jesus returns. Or do you think this has been fulfilled and that the Lord Jesus has come already?
I mean, both of us (I think) believe the time-period we call "The Tribulation Period" (occurring in the specific, future, limited years leading up to Christ's 2nd Coming to the earth) has NOT YET been in existence... Yet, the Thessalonians, back in the first century, were ALREADY experiencing "persecutionS and tribulationS ye endure"... and "they that trouble [G2346] you" [present tense].
What scripture is there that tells us there will be a pre-trib rapture? I keep asking. Where is the answer?
Pre-tribbers assume pretrib and then assign some verses to a pretrib coming and some to the second coming. Where is the justification for saying that verses about the coming of the Lord refer to two events? Why doesn't the Bible tip us off to the idea if this is indeed the case?
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