Be specific
False. Yes, you are. You are disagreeing with the clear, straightforward words of the bible not me. Yes, there is only one baptism that places us in the body of Christ, and it's clear which one it is: immersion in water as was initiated by John the Baptist and which is carried forward as the norm throughout NT scripture unless otherwise stated.
I showed you from scripture that there is only
one baptism that places us into the body of Christ and that is
Spirit baptism,
not water baptism.
Ephesians 4:5 - one Lord, one faith,
one baptism.
1 Corinthians 12:13 - For by
one Spirit we were all baptized into
one body--whether Jews or Greeks, whether slaves or free--and have all been made to
drink into
one Spirit. *Also see John 4:10,14; 7:37 for the word drink(s). It's you who is disagreeing with the clear, straightforward words of the Bible not me. Your bias and stubbornness continue to show.
And 1 Cor 12:13 on which we've exchanged comments before, is really "in one Spirit" not by one Spirit" when you look at the original Greek.
One minute you advocate plain English and now you are resorting to the original Greek which doesn't change the truth I already explained to you. For we were all baptized by[
a] (
Or with; or in) one Spirit.. For
by one Spirit are we all baptized. This is to be understood not of water baptism; for the apostle says not in one, and the same water,
but "by", or "in" one Spirit, are we all baptized; the baptism of water, and Spirit baptism are two different things; see (Matthew 3:11). Well folks, DJT_47 is wrong again.
Acts 2:38-47 clearly tells you how and why WATER baptism is required: for the remission of sins, to receive the gift of the Holy Ghost, and to be added to the body of Christ by the Lord himself.
I'm sorry but your biased interpretation of Acts 2:38 is not in harmony with (Luke 24:47; 3:19; 5:31; 10:43-47; 11:17,18; 15:7-9; 16:31; 26:18) Now for the upteenth time, in Acts 2:38, "for the remission of sins" does not refer back to both clauses, "you all repent" and "each one of you be baptized," but refers only to the first. Peter is saying "repent unto the remission of your sins," the same as in Acts 3:19. The clause "each one of you be baptized" is parenthetical. This is exactly what Acts 3:19 teaches except that Peter omits the parenthesis.
*Also compare the fact that these Gentiles in Acts 10:45 received
the gift of the Holy Spirit (compare with Acts 2:38 -
the gift of the Holy Spirit) and this was
BEFORE water baptism. (Acts 10:47)
In Acts 10:43 we read
..whoever believes in Him receives remission of sins. Again, these Gentiles received
the gift of the Holy Spirit - Acts 10:45 -
when they believed on the Lord Jesus Christ - Acts 11:17 - (compare with Acts 16:31 -
Believe on the Lord Jesus Christ and you will be saved)
BEFORE water baptism - Acts 10:47. This is referred to as
repentance unto life - Acts 11:18.
*So, the only logical conclusion
when properly harmonizing scripture with scripture is that faith in Jesus Christ "implied in genuine repentance" (rather than water baptism) brings the remission of sins and the gift of the Holy Spirit (Luke 24:47; Acts 2:38; 3:19; 5:31; 10:43-47; 11:17,18; 15:8,9; 16:31; 26:18).
*Perfect Harmony*
In regard to Acts 2:41, those who gladly received his word (upon repentance/faith implied or assumed) were "afterwards" baptized. So, they were added to the Lord upon repentance/faith prior to receiving water baptism, just as we see in (Acts 10:43;47; 11:17-18).
In regard to being added to the body of Christ by the Lord Himself, water is not said to be the cause.
Acts 4:4 - However, many of those who heard the word
believed; and the
number of the men came to be about five thousand. *What happened to baptism?
Acts 5:14 - And
believers were increasingly added to the Lord, multitudes of both men and women. *What happened to baptism?
*Hermeneutics.
These words of scripture can't be twisted or manipulated no matter how hard one may try. If Acts 2:38 tells you the point at which you receive the indwelling of the Holy Ghost, which it does, how is it that the Holy Ghost is baptizing you somehow by some unknown other process according to your logic, and obvious misunderstanding and misspplication of 1 Cor 12:13?
If Acts 2:38 and 1 Corinthians 12:13 did teach what you are implying then we would have
multiple contradictions in scripture, so your biased interpretation of Acts 2:38 and
misapplication of 1 Corinthians 12:13 must be
rejected. Roman Catholics and Mormons along with other works-salvationists would agree with your biased interpretation surrounding water baptism which should be a major
red flag for you but you are too biased and too blind to see it.
It's also easy to see, by even a casual reading of Romans 6, that only water baptism can accomplish the simulation of Christ's burial and resurrectionas discussed therein.
Water baptism is the
picture of the simulation of Christ's death, burial and resurrection but is not the reality of causing us to be buried and raised with Christ. As Greek scholar AT Robertson put it so well: The
picture in baptism points two ways, backwards to Christ's death and burial and to our death to sin, forwards to Christ's resurrection from the dead and to our new life pledged by the coming out of the watery grave to walk on the other side of the baptismal grave (F. B. Meyer). There is the further
picture of our own resurrection from the grave. It is a tragedy that Paul's majestic picture here has been so blurred by controversy that some refuse to see it. It should be said also that
a symbol is not the reality, but the picture of the reality.
Romans 6 - Robertson's Word Pictures in the New Testament - Bible Commentaries - StudyLight.org