Abrahams bosom Luke 16:19-
31
The fallacy is just the things people make up such as → “
The righteous who had died before him that were in Abraham’s bosom”.
Where does that come from …it comes from religion which has attributed many absurd things to Abraham’s bosom.
But despite what some commentators state… this is a parable for a couple specific reasons.
Verse
19 of Luke starts out “
There was a certain rich man” Now take a look at
Luke chapter 16:1. “There was a certain rich man”…. Starting midway through chapter 14 and ending in
chapter 16 verse 31 Jesus is…. teaching by way of parables…..
I know some say it can’t be a parable due to personal names being used which are not used in other parables.
But the end result of that is…. people attach meanings and embellish this section with their religious belief. Beliefs that contradict several scriptures in a few different categories and they ignore contradictions in favor of their beliefs which are built upon Babylonian mythology and have been adopted into religious denominations.
Understanding this as a parable… Which is a comparison by sustained resemblance; an extended simile whose likeness or resemblance
must be sought from the entire context. They generally express an abstract argument by means of using a concrete narrative…That is why Jesus taught this to the Pharisees in light of their
Talmudic traditions and beliefs..... It is the Pharisees who believed in rewards and punishment immediately after death….not Jesus
This (parable) is addressed to the Pharisees
(verse 14) .
And it was from their beliefs that is coined the phrase
“Abraham’s Bosom” as one of several afterlife locations..... Jesus uses the parable to condemn the Pharisees and catch them in their own erroneous belief.
His intention was not to contradict the entire Old Testament by teaching survival after death. His primary intention was to show that the Pharisees were so evil that even if someone rose from the dead they still wouldn’t listen to him….. Just the opposite appears in Jesus teachings when we look at verses such as
John_ 11:14 Then said Jesus unto them plainly, Lazarus is dead.
Luke_ 14:14. And thou shalt be blessed; for they cannot recompense thee: for thou shalt be recompensed at the resurrection of the just.
And Jesus could not have denied the abundance of scripture from the Old Testament like that of
Ecclesiastes_ 9:5, 6, &10
5: For the living know that they shall die: but the dead know not any thing, neither have they any more a reward; for the memory of them is forgotten.
6: Also their love, and their hatred, and their envy, is now perished; neither have they any more a portion for ever in any thing that is done under the sun.
10: Whatsoever thy hand findeth to do, do it with thy might; for there is no work, nor device, nor knowledge, nor wisdom, in the grave, whither thou goest.
And Jesus concludes this parable with
Luk 16:31 And he said unto him, If they hear not Moses and the prophets, neither will they be persuaded, though one rose from the dead.
How prophetic it was, as evidenced by his own resurrection from the dead, many of the Pharisees did not believe.
((I understand this somewhat illuminates the question of “are the dead alive now” which is a whole different topic for a different time ….but the Word declares Abraham is dead
Heb 11:13 These all died in faith … ff))
The reference for my statement is from the Word …. How is that fallacy?
1Pe 3:18 For Christ also hath once suffered for sins, the just for the unjust, that he might bring us to God, being put to death in the flesh, but quickened by the Spirit:
1Pe 3:19 By which also he went and preached unto the spirits in prison;
1Pe 3:20 Which sometime were disobedient, when once the longsuffering of God waited in the days of Noah, while the ark was a preparing, wherein few, that is, eight souls were saved by water.
