Do you think the Book of Revelation can be understood literally on all points?
Or is figurative language often employed?
Would you agree that ancient culture was very different than we are in 21st century and that their expressive language style needs to be understood within that culture not ours?
Please don't think I'm singling you out I don't know how many times I've been ask this in my life. It baffles me when anyone ask me this because it's worded real similar in that it's always ask about the book of Revelation being literal verses figurative,spiritual ect. and not other books like Daniel for example. I also do agree that culture in aspect of the intended meaning is very important to keep in mind, Matthew 24:3 I think throws a many for a loop because of it.
But back to The Revelation and seeing it literal or figurative. We should all ask our own self first how we think the Lord is meaning it but this is what I noticed. In Daniel there are various figurative beast that the angel explained to be kingdoms that would rule one after the other. I now know that Babylon,M/Persia,Greece and Rome were the kingdoms that were figuratively spoken of but, I also notice that Babylon although described figuratively in Scripture was fulfilled literally. That is in the prophecy Babylon did literally take Judah into captivity and although figuratively depicted as an mans head of gold it was also literal in the earths history and literally existed in it's fulfillment's. The others I notice although figuratively depicted also were literal in existence and that Persia,Greece and Rome literally existed in fulfillment of prophecy.
I think most would consider the Flood as literal and not figurative, that is most would say to me I think that the flood really in time took place. If ask most would agree God literally called Abraham out of Ur. When Israel went into captivity in Egypt I think it was literal and the plagues in Egypt I see as literal. I cant think of anything in prophecy not literal. I think God literally destroyed Sodom and Gomorrah and the Red Sea literally parted. I literally believe that they held my Lords hands and feet and hammered nails into them. I believe they literally beat our Lord, spit on him and looked upon his bones and also cast lots for his clothes. There were other things I think were literally fulfilled such as these
https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Psalm 22&version=KJV Anyway why would God the almighty tell us from the beginning of time the things that would come to pass
https://biblehub.com/isaiah/46-10.htm for us to literally see unfold in time and then after he has us trusting that he literally fulfills prophecy as he states in the Revelation completely change when he has our trust and not fulfill them literally as he has always done?
Literal and figurative I notice is as if an get out of Jail free card used whenever one is not sure how to get from point A to B in eschatological debates? lol,,,(here's a more light heart-ted approach)..... Screen name one,,,"in this generation" is literal not figurative",,,,Screen name two "no it's an generation,could be anywhere in the future when those things take place"...,Did you notice that preterite's see Revelation figurative but in this case generation is literal and that futurist who argue Revelation will unfold literally sees it in figurative usage?
In short though in almost every dialog I've had with an preterite about the prophecies in the Revelation they contend that it was fulfilled already(usually by ad70) in some literal manner. They literally see things like Jerusalem being surrounded by armies as literally fulfilled do they not? In this Generation,,,every stone upon another,,,everything in the Revelation is in general argued by the preterite literally fulfilled by ad70 if I take notice that is. Anyway the preterite contends Revelation to be literally fulfilled by ad70 and the futurist contends it to be fulfilled at some latter time but both argue it's literal fulfillment's,,,,just at two different points in time....