I have no idea what your first language is, but please read over the Strong's entries that you quoted. Read them carefully. And if you are an honest man, you will see that nothing you quoted states "agape is an inhuman unconditional love"
You seemed to be taking a position that agape was uncondition and beyond human ability and yet you quoted something that directly disagees with your premise. If we look at even just your first quoted section in red, it expresses that agape is a choice (choosing His choices), which therefore recognizes that agape can be conveyed by humans and that such conveyance is subject to free will (choosing His choices).
I asked you to clarify (within your worldview) a straightforward premise: if humans can't express agape, why would scripture instruct us to do so? "Love [agape] thy neighbour"
If you took the time to properly understand the entry for Strong's 25, you would understand that your position is incompatible.
What do you have to say for yourself? Do you have an ounce of integrity?
You seemed to be taking a position that agape was uncondition and beyond human ability and yet you quoted something that directly disagees with your premise. If we look at even just your first quoted section in red, it expresses that agape is a choice (choosing His choices), which therefore recognizes that agape can be conveyed by humans and that such conveyance is subject to free will (choosing His choices).
I asked you to clarify (within your worldview) a straightforward premise: if humans can't express agape, why would scripture instruct us to do so? "Love [agape] thy neighbour"
If you took the time to properly understand the entry for Strong's 25, you would understand that your position is incompatible.
What do you have to say for yourself? Do you have an ounce of integrity?