I applaud your recognition that "naked" and "unclothed" has nothing to do with "spiritual condition".From: http://www.freebiblecommentary.org/new_testament_studies/VOL06/VOL06B_05.html
"naked" This word is often used in Greek literature for the preferred disembodied state at death (cf. Vincent, Word Studies, vol. 2, p. 822; Frank Stagg, New Testament Theology, pp.322-324; George E. Ladd, A Theology of the New Testament, pp. 552-554). The Greeks longed for this incipient release from the physical body, however, Christianity, like Judaism, asserts that we will always have a bodily expression (both believers and unbelievers, cf. Dan. 12:1-2; Matt. 25:46; John 5:28-29). Possibly Paul is again refuting the false teaching (i.e., incipient Gnosticism).
No need to obsess over naked souls.
Amen! So, when Paul says the Christian's desire is not to be naked without a body, but to be clothed upon with a body, that right there is proof positive that being naked and unclothed is part of the process of dying.Naked does not mean a lost spiritual condition. I never lead on in that direction. Naked as Paul used it means without a body. A body clothes the soul.
Btw, if one is soul sleeping in the grave, they aren’t naked. They have a dead corrupt body to clothe them. Your theology is flawed.
you are welcome!I applaud your recognition that "naked" and "unclothed" has nothing to do with "spiritual condition".
I don't agree with the bolded part.Paul is saying he wants to be rid of this earthly body, skip the part where we lie naked and unclothed in the grave without a body awaiting the resurrection, and go on to be with Jesus in his resurrection body.
The language is clear that what Paul said WAS about being one or the other. Those who are alive are absent from the Lord, and present in their body. Those who have died are absent from the body and present with the Lord.That's what he means by, "we are confident and willing rather to be absent from the body and present with the Lord". He's not saying to be absent from the one IS TO BE present in the other at all - he's saying he rather be absent from the one and present in the other.
The Bible is silent as to the state of the soul after death. All the talk about the soul sleeping is metaphorical, simply for physical death.The fact that he says the Christian's desire is not to be naked and unclothed is evidence enough that being naked and unclothed is a part of the process of dying.
If we're honest, we have to admit that "naked" and "unclothed" is the intermediate state between this earthly house of this tabernacle, and the building of God eternal in the heavens, which Paul knew would not be his until Jesus comes in the resurrection.
He himself says that he would put on his immortal body "at the last trump" which is blown at the coming of Jesus when is heard Lord's "shout", "voice", and the "trump of God".
I appreciate your willingness to speak about this. One thing is for certain -- we simply cannot ignore the fact that Paul's mention of "naked" and "unclothed" destroys the notion of there being only two options: (1) "clothed down here" or (2) "clothed up there". I'm not trying to win an argument, only to REASON this out.I don't agree with the bolded part (about Phoneman's interpretation of "naked/unclothed" as referring to lying without a body in the grave awaiting the resurrection).
The best answer I have is that Paul is saying that our souls prefers to have a body, and we don't have a body at death, not until the resurrection.I appreciate your willingness to speak about this. One thing is for certain -- we simply cannot ignore the fact that Paul's mention of "naked" and "unclothed" destroys the notion of there being only two options: (1) "clothed down here" or (2) "clothed up there". I'm not trying to win an argument, only to REASON this out.
Look, there's a time to split hairs and a time to not. This is just such a time. Can you offer any explanation for why Paul mentions "naked" and "unclothed" if he's not referring to that third, intermediate state between "clothed down here" and "clothed up there" which seems to have as the only possibility "lying naked in the grave without a body awaiting the resurrection"?
If we're honest, we have to admit that "naked" and "unclothed" is the intermediate state between this earthly house of this tabernacle, and the building of God eternal in the heavens, which Paul knew would not be his until Jesus comes in the resurrection.
OK.The reason I'm an annihilationist...
Had this passage been a literal story, there would be numerous contradictions with the other passages of Jesus, Solomon, David, Peter, Job, and others, as well as with common sense reality, like:
- the dead in possession of knowledge, wisdom, emotions, memory, ability to break silence and devise plans
- the dead in possession of their resurrection bodies before they are to receive them in the last day resurrection
- a man totally on fire able to observe and interact with others as easily as a slightly annoyed Karen in Macy's
- Abraham's bosom being the size of the moon to accommodate all the dead that lived the past 4,000 years
- the dead able to return to and interact with those in the land of the living.
Ah. Now I see what your issue is.So, if Luke 16:19-31 KJV is a literal account of three dead men, why the flip does the Rich Man, Lazarus, and Abraham have body parts when the resurrection hasn't even happened yet?
In case I missed it, what was the text?I appreciate your willingness to speak about this. One thing is for certain -- we simply cannot ignore the fact that Paul's mention of "naked" and "unclothed" destroys the notion of there being only two options: (1) "clothed down here" or (2) "clothed up there". I'm not trying to win an argument, only to REASON this out.
Look, there's a time to split hairs and a time to not. This is just such a time. Can you offer any explanation for why Paul mentions "naked" and "unclothed" if he's not referring to that third, intermediate state between "clothed down here" and "clothed up there" which seems to have as the only possibility "lying naked in the grave without a body awaiting the resurrection"?
If Solomon says the dead "return no more again to his house" and "know not anything" and have nothing to do "with anything that is done under the sun"...is it proper to claim Samuel returned to Saul or was it a "familiar spirit" (which is a demon impersonating a dead person) that visited Saul, which the book of Chronicles says the reason Saul died is because he sought out one that had such a spirit?The best answer I have is that Paul is saying that our souls prefers to have a body, and we don't have a body at death, not until the resurrection.
Years ago, I heard a pastor explain that dead believers have an 'interim body', apparently. The thing is, the Bible doesn't address the issue of what the soul looks like between death and the resurrection. However, the Bible does make clear that those who are dead do have recognizable appearances, such as the seance where Nathan the prophet came back to give Saul a prophecy, and John saw "souls under the altar" in heaven in Rev 6. And Jesus told of a poor man Lazarus and a rich man who recognized each other after death in the place where the souls of all the dead went.
This would fit your conclusion that the word "destroys the notion of there being only 2 options". The "interim body".
We will certainly find out when we die.
Welcome! Of course, we must remain consistent. It's inconsistent for us to claim the passage in Luke 16 is literal, but then make the elements therein symbolic. If the passage is literal, then all the literal righteous dead from Adam until Jesus must literally go into Abraham's literal bosom at death - which cannot be possible.I just joined this forum, so I have not had time to read everything. I definitely agree with the above however.
I would also add that it applies to the following verse as well...
Genesis 2:25
"And they were both naked, the man and his wife, and were not ashamed."
As far as the OP being a 'parable', which I assume you mean it is not literal, then I would respectfully disagree.
I believe Abraham's Bosom exists to this very day. It is also called Paradise. That is where Jesus resides until this verse is fulfilled...
Revelation 6:11
"And white robes were given unto every one of them; and it was said unto them, that they should rest yet for a little season, until their fellowservants also and their brethren, that should be killed as they were, should be fulfilled."
The Saved are resting there in Abraham's Bosom until the Fellowservants are killed.
Hold on, there! Let's not start off on the wrong foot by making such assertions before the evidence has a chance to speak, OK?Most of what you have there is not even Biblical to begin with. They are just Strawmen arguments with no verses to back them up.
1. Where is the contradiction?
2. Where in the Bible does it say the dead are in their resurrection bodies for receiving them?
3. A man totally on fire? You mean the Rich Man? That is not what the Bible teaches.
4. Abraham's Bosom the size of the Moon? Lol... no verse teaches that!
5. OK and? There are many in the Bible who rose from the dead and interacted with those in the land of the living.
It would appear you are just making things up.
I'll share with you from Genesis 2:7 KJV what the Bible says is the difference:Ah. Now I see what your issue is.
You do not know what a Body, Soul, and Spirit is, much less the important differences between them.
Therefore, you are unable to comprehend what Hell (Hades) and Torments is all about.
So, because you do not know the answer to your own question, you conclude that it 'must not be literal'.
OK.
Like the Jehovah's Witnesses, you are making the same hermeneutical mistake about the book of Ecclesiastes.Solomon says the dead "return no more again to his house" and "know not anything"
You're making the same mistake Catholics make: calling into question that which God has made plain. Solomon is as clear about what happens when we die as is the nose on your face.Like the Jehovah's Witnesses, you are making the same hermeneutical mistake about the book of Ecclesiastes.
Solomon did not maintain everything he "searched out" under the sun (Ecc 1:13).
"without regard for eternal consequences"??? Is that why he concludes his book by saying we must fear and obey God and prepare for the eternal consequences of the Judgment?Similar to the bad advice from Job's 3 friends, Solomon expressed the exploration of life without regard for eternal consequences. His wisdom (from God) guided him while he explored what there was to do down here according to the natural perspective.
The paradigm of Ecclesiastes uses "under the sun" to demonstrate the logical outworking of life without an afterlife.
Eating and drinking and money are indeed all that is available to the lost, which is his point.This is why Solomon says things like:
-let us eat and drink, for tomorrow we die
-money is the answer to everything
-there is no activity in Sheol
-animals and humans all go to the same place (in death)
-everything is meaningless
-the earth remains forever
-there is nothing new
None of these are true; they are the inevitable conclusions of the natural-minded man.
I believe these phrases mean that those who have died do not know current events on earth. iow, they "know not anything" of current events.If Solomon says the dead "return no more again to his house" and "know not anything" and have nothing to do "with anything that is done under the sun"..
A very good question, and one that believers do need to fully understand.is it proper to claim Samuel returned to Saul or was it a "familiar spirit" (which is a demon impersonating a dead person) that visited Saul, which the book of Chronicles says the reason Saul died is because he sought out one that had such a spirit?
If they are alive in heaven, how can they not know what's going on down here? After all, "we" humans are made a "spectacle" to men and angels, but not to the "dead which are alive in heaven"? Furthermore, countless people believe their dead loved ones "watch over us" or some variation of that. I think it's a huge stretch to surmise our dead loved ones in heaven - if that is where they are - are unaware of our circumstances. After all, didn't "Samuel" know all about what was happening to Saul? We know the devil knows...and can tell his angels to go and impersonate people like "Samuel" as "familiar spirits", too.I believe these phrases mean that those who have died do not know current events on earth. iow, they "know not anything" of current events.
It does say Saul talked with "Samuel" indeed because the demon spirit took the form of Samuel.The account plainly says that Samuel talked with Saul. And Saul talked with Samuel. The text quotes what Samuel said to Saul. The account appears straightforward as the prophet Samuel actually speaking to Saul. In fact, Samuel told Saul that he would be joining Samuel the next day, which he did. I believe this is the only legitimate seance ever. God does not permit the dead to attend seances. They are demonic, as you have noted.