Judas was not chosen to be conformed to the image of GodAnd...Judas Iscariot was also chosen/elected. John 6:70,71. And he was never saved.
So your wrong
Judas was not chosen to be conformed to the image of GodAnd...Judas Iscariot was also chosen/elected. John 6:70,71. And he was never saved.
Just because you post verses does not mean it proves your point.And I responded with this:
"Didn't you read any of the many verses I have already shared that very plainly SHOW that election is to service?"
Okay.I think it goes something like this. in romans 9, where Paul spoke of two kids who would come from Rebekah and how he loved on and hated another etc etc.
Well, that's a load of rubbish.1 side is saying God chose one to heaven and the other to send to hell before they were born.
That portion of scripture is DEFINITELY talking about two nations, and NOT two individuals.The other side is saying God chose two nations, and he had a plan for one and not the other. so he loved that nation more.
More rubbish.1. Side says God choses people to save, and given them an advantage by making them born again where they prety much will recieve christ no matter what. While the rest of the people. he refuses to give them a chance.
THIS is the one true God, and the one who I willfully serve.while the other says God so loved all the world.He gave his son, That he will not force anyone to recieve his gift. He wants us to take it willingly.. And will only save those who in faith say yes..
It can be eternal, because that is what the promise/covenant says. But you want to deny that and skip ahead, fine.
I ask then: Did God reject his people? By no means! I am an Israelite myself, a descendant of Abraham, from the tribe of Benjamin. 2 God did not reject his people, whom he foreknew. Don’t you know what Scripture says in the passage about Elijah—how he appealed to God against Israel: 3 “Lord, they have killed your prophets and torn down your altars; I am the only one left, and they are trying to kill me”[a]? 4 And what was God’s answer to him? “I have reserved for myself seven thousand who have not bowed the knee to Baal.”[b] 5 So too, at the present time there is a remnant chosen by grace. 6 And if by grace, then it cannot be based on works; if it were, grace would no longer be grace.
Did God reject who?! His people. Which people? "I am an Israelite myself" not the church !! There is a remnant.
7 What then? What the people of Israel sought so earnestly they did not obtain. The elect among them did, but the others were hardened, 8 as it is written:
“God gave them a spirit of stupor,
eyes that could not see
and ears that could not hear,
to this very day.”[c]
Hardened for a time. Jews have been blinded, for a time.
11 Again I ask: Did they stumble so as to fall beyond recovery? Not at all! Rather, because of their transgression, salvation has come to the Gentiles to make Israel envious. 12 But if their transgression means riches for the world, and their loss means riches for the Gentiles, how much greater riches will their full inclusion bring!
Have they fallen beyond recovery? Not at all!!
17 If some of the branches have been broken off, and you, though a wild olive shoot, have been grafted in among the others and now share in the nourishing sap from the olive root, 18 do not consider yourself to be superior to those other branches. If you do, consider this: You do not support the root, but the root supports you. 19 You will say then, “Branches were broken off so that I could be grafted in.” 20 Granted. But they were broken off because of unbelief, and you stand by faith. Do not be arrogant, but tremble. 21 For if God did not spare the natural branches, he will not spare you either.
Would someone please be kind enough to briefly let me know what the opposing points of view are in relation to that?
All of this is true but does not even address the purpose of God's election in v.4, which is TO BE holy and blameless.
Correct. But you are reading all of Eph 1 through faulty lens by thinking that God chose people to BE IN HIM but the verse does NOT say or mean that.
Without question! However, you have already indicated a faulty view of God's sovereignty. Sovereignty does NOT mean that God is the determinate factor in all things. God permits evil to exist, but He NEVER causes sin.
Your views have God the direct cause of sin. I reject that with all my strength.
Nonsense. God, IN His total sovereignty, permits both angel and man to make their own choices. If you disagree, then you have to believe that God is the direct cause of sin.
No it wouldn't, but Calvinists cannot grasp the reality and truth about God and His sovereignty. So there's no use in even trying to explain it to you.
With your view, you HAVE TO believe that God is the direct cause of sin. Totally blasphemous.
Let's make this easy. If election IS unto salvation, then why aren't there ANY verses that simply make that point?
I've looked up EVERY use of "elect", "chosen", etc and have at least MOST of the verses that specifically address purpose in election.
And in EVERY case, the purpose is stated in terms of service. And NONE of them are stated in terms of salvation.
This is just so far off the rails. You don't really understand God's sovereignty. It is just sad that you have to believe that His sovereignty means that He makes all decisions among angels and humans. That's just puppetry or robotics.
That doesn't give God ANY glory at all. He is REDUCED to just "pulling the strings".
Here's more clarity on election to service:
1 Cor 1-
27 But God chose the foolish things of the world to shame the wise; God chose the weak things of the world to shame the strong.
28 God chose the lowly things of this world and the despised things—and the things that are not—to nullify the things that are,
Color coded for extreme clarity:
The red words are who God chooses.
The blue words are the purpose for which God chooses. Which is service. Certainly not salvation.
Well, that's a good start. Many Calvinists think the verse means that God chose who would believe, which it doesn't. It very clearly says that God chose us (believers)...to be holy and blameless (lifestyle of service to Him).
Quite true.
Quite untrue. Just because God is fully sovereign, doesn't mean He is the sole determinate factor in all things. That would mean that sin is caused by God. If you believe that horrible heresy and blasphemy, we're done here. I have nothing more to say.
There is NO contradiction with sovereignty allowing or permitting free choice among subjects.
You may thing Paul didn't have a choice, but he did.
Continued...
It is interesting how calvinists howl when someone challenges their doctrines, but they STILL can't defend their doctrines from Scripture.
Good day,Thanks, again, to those of you who answered my first question here.
I have a second question:
In my brief skimming of this thread, there seems to be another issue concerning "unconditional election" surrounding the nation of Israel.
Would someone please be kind enough to briefly let me know what the opposing points of view are in relation to that?
Thank you.
election is required?
I am not understanding.
God chose (elected) to save those who would be saved based on his will. It is not something that was required was it? It was just an event..
If God does not keep a promise to a nation he created by his own power, and loved inspite of her sins against him.
He has no obligation to keep his promise to us.
We would then have no hope. Lets go eat drink and be merry, because it is all we can control..
It seems like your comment here is more in relation to my original question than my second question, but that's fine.I can't speak to any other points of view except my own. It is that Christ being the Saviour, must do the saving, in every
regards, not just in some. I don't believe there can be such a thing as God's mercy and grace unto salvation without election.
Otherwise, a recipient of salvation must do something of themselves for it, no matter how slight and insignificant it may appear to obtain it. And if even that slight thing is required of them, then everything is required of them: it is all or nothing. To
believe otherwise is to negate Christ's offering.
I disagree.Yes - Election was required. As I pointed out in my post, no Election to Grace, no Salvation of humanity.
Humanity, after the fall of Adam was thrown into sin and unrighteousness. Scripture says: We are all "dead" in trespasses and sin. When God warned Adam, not to eat the fruit from the center of the Garden, He proclaimed "death" would be the penalty. Adam's sin brought "death" upon all humanity but not right there and then. What it did do is cause our spiritual death. In other words, man's spirit could no longer commune with God. God fixed this, in Adam and Eve, by giving them a temporary form of righteousness. (see Gen. 3:21)
Being that humanity was now "dead", there was no hope for it. For how can one who is dead accomplish anything? Your dead. One who is dead cannot move towards Christ, indeed, they cannot move at all. If humanity is in the "pit of sin", how can a dead person climb out? Besides the Ref. in Romans 3:9-19, which describes our state apart from God, there is this in 1 Corinthians:
1Co 2:12 But we received, not the spirit of the world, but the spirit which is from God; that we might know the things that were freely given to us of God.
1Co 2:13 Which things also we speak, not in words which man's wisdom teacheth, but which the Spirit teacheth; combining spiritual things with spiritual words.
1Co 2:14 Now the natural man receiveth not the things of the Spirit of God: for they are foolishness unto him; and he cannot know them, because they are spiritually judged.
Therefore, Election was necessary, so that God could place some into the Eternal Covenant, (Heb.13:20), and have His Son redeem them. Each one of the Elect, at the proper time, will be born of the Spirit. By being born again, this person who was "dead" is made alive to God. This persons spirit is able to discern spiritual things and the things discerned, compels him to move toward Jesus Christ.
I think one should mention or at least note, that how you see this subject is based largely upon your Eschatological views.
1) The Amillennial view spiritualizes the OT promises to the point of obliteration.
2) The Premillennial view takes the OT promises literally and seriously.
3) The Postmillennial view also takes these promises seriously.
never said he was. Where do you get your wrong conclusions from?Judas was not chosen to be conformed to the image of God
Why didn't you bother to at least read John 6:70,71. That's the problem with calvinists. You give them a clear verse that shows election to service, and they don't read it.So your wrong
Well, this does prove that you don't bother reading any of the verses I share.Just because you post verses does not mean it proves your point.
You capitalized "He". Are you referring to God or Jesus?? I don't know who you are referring to.remember, He tried the same thing with me. So it happens on both sides..
Wrong. I've never "wrestled" with the question. Because it is a bogus question and I ignore bogus questions.I will deal with this first:
Your problem seems to be that you are wrestling with the age old question - where does God's will end and man's will begin?
No it's not. It's a worthless question. Just accept the reality of what free will is; freedom to choose. There is no power in freedom to choose.Or put another way, how much of what takes place is God's will and how much is man's will? A truly difficult problem.
When you talked about God's Sovereignty, in your reply, you show how confused you are. You made this statement on two separate occasions:
1) "Without question! However, you have already indicated a faulty view of God's sovereignty. Sovereignty does NOT mean that God is the determinate factor in all things. God permits evil to exist, but He NEVER causes sin."
2) "Nonsense. God, IN His total sovereignty, permits both angel and man to make their own choices. If you disagree, then you have to believe that God is the direct cause of sin."
Do you even understand what you are saying??The Permissive will of God, is just another way, in which God determines in His Sovereignty.
Now, please explain how these 2 statements show my "confusion".
Sure sounds like free will to me. So what's your beef?God either acts directly upon the subject (His active will), or He permits something to take place. In either case, He does this at His good pleasure. Why? Because He is God and man is a mere creation. God's Plan will stand firm, not man's.
Of course not. And that is my point. Man is free to choose his actions.As far as SIN is concerned: Sin would have never, ever entered Creation if God did not ALLOW it.
Wow. Really messed up here. I know what calvinists think of "determine" something. To them, it means God "caused" it.Therefore, God's Permissive will determined it.
I guess you really don't give a hoot about the meaning of words. The word "permissive will" means God allows man to make his own choices.
What do you mean "upheld"? Are you saying God caused 2/3's of the angels to NOT rebel?He knew sin would enter into Creation and He allowed it. Keep in mind, God's Active will, upheld two-thirds of the Angels that did not fall.
EVERY angel had the choice. Quit kidding yourself. And you can't prove your theory about God upholding 2/3's of the angels.His Permissive will, allowed a third to fall.
No, there is NOTHING to clarify. The answer is NO.Is God the determinate factor in anyone's sin? This must be clarified.
You are twisting words WAY out of their meaning. When God PERMITS/ALLOWS an angel or human to do something, that angel or human is making their own choice. Quit kidding yourself.1) Did God cause anyone to sin? Absolutely not! 2) Did God allow an Angel or person to sin? Yes. Therefore, God is the determinate factor in sin because He could have stopped an Angel or person from sinning but chose not too.
Nope. Abraham had free will.God did put a stop to Abram's sin in Gen. 12:17-19, when Abram did not trust God and lied to Pharaoh about his wife.
First, I didn't "omit" anything. Where are you getting your confusion from???So by your own omission (In the quotes above), you agree that God is Totally Sovereign.
And I INCLUDED (that is the opposite of 'omission') that God is totally sovereign. You even colored my words RED.
And that is NOT "cause".For something to take place, God must "permit" it.
Let's back up to John 6:44 and 45. Calvinists love v.44 but totally ignore v.45, which explains who WILL come to Jesus.This should remind you of a very important verse upon the subject of Salvation:
John_6:65 And he said, For this cause have I said unto you, that no man can come unto me, except it be given unto him of the Father.
44 “No one can come to me unless the Father who sent me draws them, and I will raise them up at the last day.
45 It is written in the Prophets: ‘They will all be taught by God.’ Everyone who has heard the Father and learned from him comes to me.
Red words show that God has taught everyone.
Blue words refer to those who listened and learned from the Father.
Green words is the result of listening and learning from the Father.
No it doesn't. Read it again and again.Now as to the second part:
Eph. 1:4, declares that all believers were chosen IN Christ before the foundation of the world.
For he chose us in him before the creation of the world to be holy and blameless in his sight.
Red words is what God has done: He chose/elected us. The word "us" is defined in v19 as "us who believe". 'us' = 'believers'
Blue words form a parenthesis which defines the "us", which is believers.
Green words refer to the purpose of God's election of believers; service.
Sure. No problem for omniscient God. He has always known everything.This passage confirms, that everyone who has been elected or chosen was written in the Lamb's Book of Life.
Since there is NO MENTION of election in either verse, you are just fantasizing.Additionally, this teaching harmonizes with these passages:
John_10:29 My Father, which hath given them unto me, is greater than all; and no one is able to snatch them out of the Father's hand.
John_17:4 I glorified thee on the earth, having accomplished the work which thou hast given me to do.
John_17:11 And I am no more in the world, and these are in the world, and I come to thee. Holy Father, keep them in thy name which thou hast given me, that they may be one, even as we are.
Verses 29 and 11, prove that the Father gave those elected to Christ
Sure, quote calvinists. Who don't understand election any more than you do.Additionally, I give these views on Eph. 1:4 -
John Gill:
"...nor is this choice of persons to an office, for all that are here intended were not apostles, or pastors, or deacons: nor can it design the effectual calling, or the call of persons in time by efficacious grace; because this was before the foundation of the world, as follows: but it intends an eternal election of particular persons to everlasting life and salvation; and which is the first blessing of grace, and the foundation one, upon which all the rest proceed..."
Albert Barnes:
"In him - In Christ. The choice was not without reference to any means of saving them; it was not a mere purpose to bring a certain number to heaven; it was with reference to the mediation of the Redeemer, and his work. It was a purpose that they should be saved “by” him, and share the benefits of the atonement. The whole choice and purpose of salvation had reference to him, and “out” of him no one was chosen to life, and no one out of him will be saved."
Unless you provide a verse that shows election being to salvation, you have no point.
I've shown many many verses that show election is to service, including Eph 1:4.
When a person develops a habit, they are rarely aware of what they are doing. You've been howling.I rarely howl.
You "disagree" with the very words of Jesus Christ?
Doesn't that concern you?
It should.