FreeGrace2 said:
My interlinear has "of (in)". iow, the Greek word can be translated either way.
Yeah, well that would then read "by faith in Jesus Christ we have believed in Jesus Christ". So, based upon that, we would need to have faith in Christ to have faith in Christ? Logical impossibility.
Why don't you go to biblehub.com yourself and read all the English translations.
Never mind. I'll just show you several formal equivalent translations:
English Standard Version
yet we know that a person is not justified by works of the law but through faith in Jesus Christ, so we also have believed in Christ Jesus, in order to be justified by faith in Christ and not by works of the law, because by works of the law no one will be justified.
Berean Study Bible
know that a man is not justified by works of the law, but by faith in Jesus Christ. So we, too, have believed in Christ Jesus, that we may be justified by faith in Christ and not by works of the law, because by works of the law no one will be justified.
Berean Literal Bible
nevertheless knowing that a man is not justified by works of law, except through faith from Jesus Christ, even we have believed in Christ Jesus that we may be justified by faith from Christ, and not by works of the Law, because by works of the Law not any flesh will be justified.
New American Standard Bible
nevertheless, knowing that a person is not justified by works of the Law but through faith in Christ Jesus, even we have believed in Christ Jesus, so that we may be justified by faith in Christ and not by works of the Law; since by works of the Law no flesh will be justified.
You were applying the word to the wording of the KJV.
The point is: translators don't all agree. And half of the translations go one way and the other half go the other way.
Stalemate.