More folly.
Since there is a controversy about which trans-Atlantic steamer sank in April of 1912, God is contending for the Titanic rather than the Olympic (or vice-versa)? What utter rot!
You can take it or leave it.
I am saying that it is a possibility that the Lord is contending for the kjv. And I would say that for you, it bears looking into the controversy to see whether the kjv-only side has merit.
Because if it does, then God is indeed contending for it, by His Holy Spirit.
There is a strong possibility that believing in the kjv's inerrancy and inspiration as concerning doctrine is a part of the narrow way that is spoken of in Matthew 7:13-14; and that I am relating this to you by the Holy Spirit.
Also, as concerning your statement that I am preaching "more folly"...
I would encourage you to read and understand 1 Corinthians 1:18-29.
Two more non sequitur fallacies.
Nope.
Sadly, your grasp of logic is lacking. Though it might be simple ignorance on your part, the lack inhibits your ability to reason correctly.
Again, if you honestly believe what you claim, you would apply it to all translations, not just the KJV. It is not sound reasoning anyway, but you are even inconsistent in applying it.
The fact that there is a controversy over kjv-only means that I don't have to. Because if it is part of God's plan to contend for the kjv as being the only translation that is inerrant and inspired, then He brought the controversy into being so that people would have that truth.
If the controversy did not exist, then your logic would indeed have merit.
But the fact that God contends for the kjv means that the same logic does not have to be applied to other translations.
Because the issue is people knowing where to go for the unadulterated message of the whole counsel of God.
The logic can be applied to the kjv and not the modern translations because, since there is a controversy over the kjv, people are faced with a decision as to whether they will adhere to the kjv or else believe that modern translations are also valid.
Erasmus did not have the complete text of Revelation. The subsequent texts, referenced by the KJV translators, suffered the same problem.
That is news to me.
Why don't you educate me...
When did the complete text of the book of Revelation come into play, that we have in our Protestant Bibles?
You mean there's more of this codswollop?
It is not codswollop but edifying doctrine. But, because you are one who does not endure sound doctrine, I know that you will heap to yourself teachers to teach you what is contrary to what is taught in the document; or may even become one of those teachers.