I Was Not Sent to Baptize - What Exactly Did Paul Mean?

[Wansvic]

What did Paul mean by his comment that he was not sent to baptize? (1Cor. 1:17) Paul’s comment has been taken out of context by many. Primarily by those who promote the idea that obedience to water baptism is not an essential part of the NT spiritual rebirth process.

Consider the probability that Paul’s statement points to his primary anointing being to preach the gospel. Scripture confirms that water baptism is part of the gospel message. (Acts 2:38-41, 8:12-18, 8:35-40, 10:44-48, 16:14-15, 16:28-33, 18:6-10, 19:1-6, 22:16) It was the command Ananias gave Paul personally. And one Paul obeyed before he began his own ministry. (Acts 22:16) In addition, Paul expressed its necessity to the Ephesians in Acts 19:1-6. Clearly, Paul understood that water baptism was part of the gospel message. Paul’s comment then could not have been intended to mean what some mistakenly believe. It is more likely that Paul preached the need to do it but rarely performed the actual water baptisms himself.

Paul mentions Crispus by name as one of those that he did personally baptize. (! Cor. 1:14) Let’s take a look at the circumstances around the baptism of Crispus to see if it gives any insight. The scripture reference is Acts 18:6-10. The record shows that Crispus and all of those of his household and MANY Corinthians believed Paul's message and were baptized. (verse 8) This verse alone confirms Paul’s message included the need to be baptized.

So of the entire group, the chief ruler of the synagogue (Crispus) was the only one that Paul actually baptized himself. (see 1 Cor. 1:14) Clearly, someone else was with Paul and performed the other water baptisms. Further it should be noted that on that very night the Lord gave Paul a vision. He told him to continue speaking/sharing the message without fear. (Acts 18:9-10)

Acts 18:6-10
6 And when they opposed themselves, and blasphemed, he shook his raiment, and said unto them, Your blood be upon your own heads; I am clean: from henceforth I will go unto the Gentiles.
7 And he departed thence, and entered into a certain man's house, named Justus, one that worshipped God, whose house joined hard to the synagogue.
8 And Crispus, the chief ruler of the synagogue, believed on the Lord with all his house; and many of the Corinthians hearing believed, and were baptized.
(Paul’s comments in 1 Cor. 1:14 establish that this was water baptism.)

9 Then spake the Lord to Paul in the night by a vision, Be not afraid, but speak, and hold not thy peace:
10 For I am with thee, and no man shall set on thee to hurt thee: for I have much people in this city.

 

[FreeGrace2]

Paul meant exactly what he said. He was sent to "make disciples", just like the 11 that Jesus commissioned in Matt 28:19,20.

He left most of the baptizing to his entourage.

As the most prolific evangelist in human history, if water baptism was a requirement for salvation, there would be no doubt that he would have immersed everyone who responded in faith to his many many preachings.

The requirement of water baptism for salvation is parallel to what we find in Acts 15:

1 Certain people came down from Judea to Antioch and were teaching the believers: “Unless you are circumcised, according to the custom taught by Moses, you cannot be saved.”
2 This brought Paul and Barnabas into sharp dispute and debate with them. So Paul and Barnabas were appointed, along with some other believers, to go up to Jerusalem to see the apostles and elders about this question.

5 Then some of the believers who belonged to the party of the Pharisees stood up and said, “The Gentiles must be circumcised and required to keep the law of Moses.”
6 The apostles and elders met to consider this question.
7 After much discussion, Peter got up and addressed them: “Brothers, you know that some time ago God made a choice among you that the Gentiles might hear from my lips the message of the gospel and believe.
8 God, who knows the heart, showed that he accepted them by giving the Holy Spirit to them, just as he did to us.
9 He did not discriminate between us and them, for he purified their hearts by faith.

10 Now then, why do you try to test God by putting on the necks of Gentiles a yoke that neither we nor our ancestors have been able to bear?
11 No! We believe it is through the grace of our Lord Jesus that we are saved, just as they are.”

The issue in Acts was circumcision for salvation. The OT established the ritual of circumcision as a symbol for being God's chosen people.

And the Pharisees twisted that into a requirement for salvation, along with "keeping the law of Moses".

Some modern day evangelicals have done the same thing with water baptism. They fail to discern between the symbol of water baptism and baptism of the Holy Spirit.

Mark 15:16 is a disputed passage since the earliest known manuscripts (circa 2nd Century) do NOT contain v.9-end of chapter. Those verses were found in later manuscripts.

 

[Runningman]

Personally, I think Paul meant exactly what he said in 1 Corinthians 1. Paul minimizes the importance of water baptism compared to the Message of the Cross.

To me, the plain text strongly suggests that water baptism is an unessential component of salvation.

It's inferred that if Paul was not sent by Christ to water baptize then God does not view water baptism as an essential component of salvation.

Salvation for humanity is clearly a priority to Christ. If Christ didn't send Paul to water baptize then what was the point of going at all?

Paul answers that question in no uncertain terms in the verse the OP of this thread claims is a proof for the requirement of water baptism for salvation. 1 Corinthians 1:17 says the opposite:

1 Cor. 1:17
17For Christ sent me not to baptize, but to preach the gospel: not with wisdom of words, lest the cross of Christ should be made of none effect.

 

[Nehemiah6]

What did Paul mean by his comment that he was not sent to baptize? (1Cor. 1:17)

What he meant was simply this: his primary goal and responsibility was to preach the Gospel. He also knew that baptism must follow conversion, and he had people helping him to do just that. As we see in Acts 16, Paul did exactly what was commanded by Christ. He and Silas baptized an entire household at around midnight.

 

[Gideon300]

Personally, I think Paul meant exactly what he said in 1 Corinthians 1. Paul minimizes the importance of water baptism compared to the Message of the Cross.

To me, the plain text strongly suggests that water baptism is an unessential component of salvation.

It's inferred that if Paul was not sent by Christ to water baptize then God does not view water baptism as an essential component of salvation.

Salvation for humanity is clearly a priority to Christ. If Christ didn't send Paul to water baptize then what was the point of going at all?

Paul answers that question in no uncertain terms in the verse the OP of this thread claims is a proof for the requirement of water baptism for salvation. 1 Corinthians 1:17 says the opposite:

1 Cor. 1:17
17For Christ sent me not to baptize, but to preach the gospel: not with wisdom of words, lest the cross of Christ should be made of none effect.

Baptism is good and right but it saves no one. There are a number of reasons to baptise believers, but it not to do with the initial experience of being born again.

 

[Wansvic]

Baptism is good and right but it saves no one. There are a number of reasons to baptise believers, but it not to do with the initial experience of being born again.

I know that what you state is the common belief. However, the word actually states otherwise.

Seen in the word when a person believes God's command concerning water baptism and obeys it, by God's design, their personal sins are washed away. (Acts 22:16, 2:38) Believing and obeying the "Word" is what saves according to Jesus. (Mark 16:16)

What many fail to realize is that Jesus' sacrifice paid the penalty for the sin of all mankind. But it is through obedience to God's command to be baptized in water that one's personal sins are actually washed away. This is not an opinion. It is what is actually recorded in the biblical record.

Keep in mind that sin cannot enter into heaven. Therefore without the washing away of an individual's sin they cannot expect to gain entrance.

 

[Wansvic]

Personally, I think Paul meant exactly what he said in 1 Corinthians 1. Paul minimizes the importance of water baptism compared to the Message of the Cross.

To me, the plain text strongly suggests that water baptism is an unessential component of salvation.

It's inferred that if Paul was not sent by Christ to water baptize then God does not view water baptism as an essential component of salvation.

Salvation for humanity is clearly a priority to Christ. If Christ didn't send Paul to water baptize then what was the point of going at all?

Paul answers that question in no uncertain terms in the verse the OP of this thread claims is a proof for the requirement of water baptism for salvation. 1 Corinthians 1:17 says the opposite:

1 Cor. 1:17
17For Christ sent me not to baptize, but to preach the gospel: not with wisdom of words, lest the cross of Christ should be made of none effect.

The first part of the verse references baptism and preaching. The second part refers to how he personally preaches the gospel, (void of eloquence, etc.) and relates in no way to the topic of baptism. The preceding verses make this apparent. The people were esteeming their ministers rather than the Lord Jesus who was crucified for them.

 

[FreeGrace2]

The first part of the verse references baptism and preaching. The second part refers to how he personally preaches the gospel, (void of eloquence, etc.) and relates in no way to the topic of baptism. The preceding verses make this apparent. The people were esteeming their ministers rather than the Lord Jesus who was crucified for them.

The ONLY VERSE you have to support the claim that salvation requires water baptism is a disputed verse in Mark 16.

Every other verse regarding salvation or eternal life does NOT mention water baptism.

 

[presidente]

According to Acts 18:8 many Corinthians heard Paul, believed and were baptized. But Paul only remembered baptizing one household and two individuals.

So it is likely others may havw done the baptizing. New converts may have baptized people as they came to faith.
Baptism is necessary, but Paul did not have to be the one to do it.

 

[presidente]

The ONLY VERSE you have to support the claim that salvation requires water baptism is a disputed verse in Mark 16.

Every other verse regarding salvation or eternal life does NOT mention water baptism.

Peter called his audience to repent and be baptized. Ananias told Saul of Tarsus to be baptized and wash away his sins calling on the name of tge Lord.

Peter wrote baptism now saves you, not the washing of the filth of the flesh but the answer of a good conscience toward God.

Paul wrote to the Colossiabs that they were buried and raised with Christ in baptism through faith in the operation of God Who raised Him from the dead.

 

[Webers.Home]

.

But it is through obedience to God's command to be baptized in water that
one's personal sins are actually washed away. This is not an opinion. It is
what is actually recorded in the biblical record.

Below is a popular proof text.

• Acts 22:16 . . And now why do you delay? Arise, and be baptized, and
wash away your sins, calling on His name.

There is no punctuation in the Greek manuscripts. All punctuation that
translators place in English translations is placed arbitrarily, i.e. placed
where the translators think some punctuation ought to be.

For example: the last comma in the passage above is not in the Greek. So, if
we remove it; here's how that verse would read:

"And now why do you delay? Arise, and be baptized, and wash away your
sins calling on His name."

You see; when that arbitrary comma is removed, it becomes readily
apparent that washing is obtained by means of prayer rather than by a
ritual.

• 1John 1:9 . . If we confess our sins, He is faithful and righteous to forgive
us our sins and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness.

Keep in mind that sin cannot enter into heaven. Therefore without the
washing away of an individual's sin they cannot expect to gain entrance.

The best, and most effective, washing for the purpose of entering Heaven,
isn't done by means of water, but by means of regeneration.

• Titus 3:4-6 . . He saved us . . .by the washing of regeneration and renewing
by the Holy Spirit

The thing is: even if people's sins were thoroughly washed away, they would
not qualify for Heaven because they would still be sinners capable of more
and more sins. So, in order to make them suitable for Heaven, it's necessary
for them to undergo the Spirit birth that Jesus spoke of in John 3:3-8. That
way, they'll leave their natural selves behind when they pass on; and enter
the afterlife with 100% sinless perfection; never to sin again.
_

 

[Wansvic]

.

Below is a popular proof text.

• Acts 22:16 . . And now why do you delay? Arise, and be baptized, and
wash away your sins, calling on His name.

There is no punctuation in the Greek manuscripts. All punctuation that
translators place in English translations is placed arbitrarily, i.e. placed
where the translators think some punctuation ought to be.

For example: the last comma in the passage above is not in the Greek. So, if
we remove it; here's how that verse would read:

"And now why do you delay? Arise, and be baptized, and wash away your
sins calling on His name."

You see; when that arbitrary comma is removed, it becomes readily
apparent that washing is obtained by means of prayer rather than by a
ritual.

• 1John 1:9 . . If we confess our sins, He is faithful and righteous to forgive
us our sins and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness.





The best, and most effective, washing for the purpose of entering Heaven,
isn't done by means of water, but by means of regeneration.

• Titus 3:4-6 . . He saved us . . .by the washing of regeneration and renewing
by the Holy Spirit

The thing is: even if people's sins were thoroughly washed away, they would
not qualify for Heaven because they would still be sinners capable of more
and more sins. So, in order to make them suitable for Heaven, it's necessary
for them to undergo the Spirit birth that Jesus spoke of in John 3:3-8. That
way, they'll leave their natural selves behind when they pass on; and enter
the afterlife with 100% sinless perfection; never to sin again.
_

All records with details of actual water baptisms include the use of the name of the Lord Jesus. This is when one calls upon the name as witnessed in scripture. The belief in the sinner's prayer being when this is done is a contradiction to what is actually found in the word.

The Apostles obeyed Jesus' command in Matthew 28:19 by baptizing in His actual name:

Acts 2:38-39 (Jewish)
Then Peter said unto them, Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost.

Acts 8:12 & 16 (Samaritans were half jewish and half gentile)
8 But when they believed Philip preaching the things concerning the kingdom of God, and the name of Jesus Christ, they were baptized, both men and women.
16 (For as yet he was fallen upon none of them: only they were baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus.)

Acts 10:44-48 (Gentiles)
And he commanded them to be baptized in the name of the Lord. Then prayed they him to tarry certain days.

Acts 19:2-6 (Disciples who did not realize they had to water baptized in Jesus name)
When they heard this, they were baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus.

 

[Wansvic]

.

• 1John 1:9 . . If we confess our sins, He is faithful and righteous to forgive
us our sins and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness.

_

The water baptism associated with the spiritual rebirth is when one's past sins are remitted. (Acts 2:38)

1 John 1:9 speaks of the born again believers need to continue to confess and ask forgiveness for sins they commit after becoming reborn.

 

[EternalFire]

Hear Jesus: “Truly, truly I say to you, unless one is born of water and the Spirit, he cannot enter into the Kingdom of God” (John 3:5).

 

[Wansvic]

The ONLY VERSE you have to support the claim that salvation requires water baptism is a disputed verse in Mark 16.

Every other verse regarding salvation or eternal life does NOT mention water baptism.

This comment has no relevance to what is being discussed. However, I disagree with you.

 

[presidente]

.



Below is a popular proof text.

• Acts 22:16 . . And now why do you delay? Arise, and be baptized, and
wash away your sins, calling on His name.

There is no punctuation in the Greek manuscripts. All punctuation that
translators place in English translations is placed arbitrarily, i.e. placed
where the translators think some punctuation ought to be.

For example: the last comma in the passage above is not in the Greek. So, if
we remove it; here's how that verse would read:

"And now why do you delay? Arise, and be baptized, and wash away your
sins calling on His name."

You see; when that arbitrary comma is removed, it becomes readily
apparent that washing is obtained by means of prayer rather than by a
ritual.

Nope. Oxford commas are dalling out of tge labguage. It does not change the meaning of the passage.

• 1John 1:9 . . If we confess our sins, He is faithful and righteous to forgive
us our sins and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness.

Written to those in covenant already, not a conversion passage

The best, and most effective, washing for the purpose of entering Heaven,
isn't done by means of water, but by means of regeneration.

• Titus 3:4-6 . . He saved us . . .by the washing of regeneration and renewing
by the Holy Spirit

The thing is: even if people's sins were thoroughly washed away, they would
not qualify for Heaven because they would still be sinners capable of more
and more sins. So, in order to make them suitable for Heaven, it's necessary
for them to undergo the Spirit birth that Jesus spoke of in John 3:3-8. That
way, they'll leave their natural selves behind when they pass on; and enter
the afterlife with 100% sinless perfection; never to sin again.
_

The account of Philip and the eunuch is explicit that water was used. Peter said "Can any man forbid water..." before baptizing Gentiles.

It is reasonable to assume baptism was in water unless tge context implies some other media. Jews were used to regular mikveh.

 

[FreeGrace2]

FreeGrace2 said:
The ONLY VERSE you have to support the claim that salvation requires water baptism is a disputed verse in Mark 16.

Every other verse regarding salvation or eternal life does NOT mention water baptism.

Peter called his audience to repent and be baptized. Ananias told Saul of Tarsus to be baptized and wash away his sins calling on the name of tge Lord.

This doesn't prove that baptism saves at all. Water baptism follows salvation as a sign o being identified with Christ.

Peter wrote baptism now saves you, not the washing of the filth of the flesh but the answer of a good conscience toward God.

When one reads v.20 with v.21 a clear picture emerges. In v.20 Peter said that Noah was saved THROUGH water. What he didn't say was that Noah was saved BY water. In fact, the rest of humanity was KILLED by water.

Then, we have v.21-
New International Version
and this water symbolizes baptism that now saves you also—not the removal of dirt from the body but the pledge of a clear conscience toward God. It saves you by the resurrection of Jesus Christ,

New Living Translation
And that water is a picture of baptism, which now saves you, not by removing dirt from your body, but as a response to God from a clean conscience. It is effective because of the resurrection of Jesus Christ.

English Standard Version
Baptism, which corresponds to this, now saves you, not as a removal of dirt from the body but as an appeal to God for a good conscience, through the resurrection of Jesus Christ,

Berean Study Bible
And this water symbolizes the baptism that now saves you also—not the removal of dirt from the body, but the pledge of a clear conscience toward God—through the resurrection of Jesus Christ,

The terms "this water" and "that water" refers to literal water, as in the flood in v.20. We see that literal water "symbolizes baptism" or "is a picture of baptism" that saves.

So, what is "the baptism that saves"? It is the baptism of the Holy Spirit.

Acts 11-
15 “As I began to speak, the Holy Spirit came on them as he had come on us at the beginning.
16 Then I remembered what the Lord had said: ‘John baptized with water, but you will be baptized with the Holy Spirit.’
17 So if God gave them the same gift he gave us who believed in the Lord Jesus Christ, who was I to think that I could stand in God’s way?”
18 When they heard this, they had no further objections and praised God, saying, “So then, even to Gentiles God has granted repentance that leads to life.”

This passage clears up the debate. v.16 is a statement from Jesus that distinguishes BETWEEN water baptism and the baptism with the Spirit. They are different, and Jesus distinguishes between them.

v.17 notes that the reception of the Holy Spirit is a gift from God. Just like the gift of eternal life (Rom 6:23)

Paul wrote to the Colossiabs that they were buried and raised with Christ in baptism through faith in the operation of God Who raised Him from the dead.

Right. "buried and raised with Christ THROUGH FAITH.

When a person is water baptized, the immersion is a PICTURE or SYMBOL of being buried with Christ, and the bringing out of the water is a PICTURE or SYMBOL of being raised with Christ.

So water baptism is what the verses (and many more) say it is; a SYMBOL or PICTURE.

It's NOT the "real thing". The real thing is faith in Christ, which DOES save and result in the indwelling Holy Spirit (Spirit baptism).

I will entertain questions.

 

[FreeGrace2]

The water baptism associated with the spiritual rebirth is when one's past sins are remitted. (Acts 2:38)

Only if you were physically present at the Lord's crucifixion.

1 John 1:9 speaks of the born again believers need to continue to confess and ask forgiveness for sins they commit after becoming reborn.

The context for 1 Jn 1:9 is FELLOWSHIP. Sin offends God, per Isa 64:6. Only when sins are confessed can the believer be in fellowship with the Lord.

Paul commands believers to be filled with the Spirit. That isn't possible when the believer is out of fellowship with the Lord.

Paul also commands believers to NOT grieve (Eph 5:18) or quench the Spirit (1 Thess 5:19). These are the ways to be out of fellowship, and by confession of these things, fellowship is renewed.

 

[FreeGrace2]

FreeGrace2 said:
The ONLY VERSE you have to support the claim that salvation requires water baptism is a disputed verse in Mark 16.

Every other verse regarding salvation or eternal life does NOT mention water baptism.

This comment has no relevance to what is being discussed. However, I disagree with you.

Well then, you are just very confused. The discussion is about water baptism being necessary for salvation.

By faith, the believer is sealed with the Spirit (Eph 1:13,14). This marks the believer as God's own possession. Water baptism is, again, a SYMBOL of all that.

Other than being a SYMBOL, all it does is get the believer wet.

In Acts 15 we find believers among the Pharisee sect who taught that to be saved, one had to be circumcised. That parallels what those who claim one must be water baptized to be saved today.

Water baptism is an act of obedience. We are saved by grace THROUGH faith, not through obedience.

 

[presidente]

Nope. Oxford commas are dalling out of tge labguage. It does not change the meaning of the passage.

I posted on my phone, which has a keypad not designed for male-sized thumbs (discrimination, right?).

That should be:
Oxford commas are falling out of the language.