@AandW ,
Oops, sorry... I meant your Post #553 instead
^ @AandW ,
Consider a post I made on that [your Post #555]
Oops, sorry... I meant your Post #553 instead
^ @AandW ,
Consider a post I made on that [your Post #555]
It is okay to examine the detail and reason a conclusion about it; however, don't forget the "bigger picture"...My Theory is that there was [Never] a Gap Theory in the mind of God to begin with. Theoretically speaking here, by taking the [Very Words] of Christ, Matthew 24: 15 When ye therefore shall see the abomination of desolation, spoken of by Daniel the prophet, stand in the holy place, (whoso readeth, let him understand...let's concentrate on this portion [stand in the holy place].
stand in the holy place. This just means as simple as having Gentile person standing in the Holy Place rather than a Jewish High Priest is an Abomination. The Romans who destroyed the Temple in 70 A.D. were inside the Temple and Holy of Hollies. That classifies as an abomination because the Romans are Gentiles, not Levite High Priest.
Christ just said for this to be an abomination, it just had to STAND in the Holy Place.
That clearly would have happened during the Temple seize and then destruction.
How can that be if the author of the doctrine was the apostle Paul himself? I mean I can read Paul's inspired writings just the same as the apostolic fathers and I've reached the same conclusion: Pretrib premillennial. Why in the world would I postulate something different than what Paul describes?
This is a commonly held erroneous idea.This is a commonly held erroneous idea. The throne on which Christ is seated in Heaven is His own throne...
But, that is not what it says.It does say that, if one accepts that the initial 7 weeks are followed by the 62 weeks
SMHLets put your unbiblical theory regarding Matt 24:15 to rest RIGHT NOW shall we?
THIS dear friend, is THE BIBLICAL Abomination of Desolation. The real one. The genuine one. The description of which is so detailed, so imposing, so remarkable in its unique identity that it cannot POSSIBLY be confused with ANY act or deed or person who was involved in the 70 AD destruction of the Temple!
They can - and, they are...Friend....perhaps you fail to comprehend that you have erroneously conflated the 70AD event and Matt 24:15 (the A of D). In an effort to rectify your terrible mistake, I have utterly destroyed your faulty theory in about 5 minutes, proving beyond a shadow of a doubt that they cannot possibly be speaking of the same event.
Yes it has - back in 167 B.C.Well....so now we have somebody talking about not one but TWO Abomination of Desolations eh?
Whatever they need to shoehorn their crazy 70AD theories into the Bible I guess.
But NO. There is ONLY ONE unique, specific EVENT and PERSON which TOGETHER constitute the ONE AND ONLY Abomination of Desolation spoken by Jesus in Matt 24:15.
And this event DEFINITELY has not happened yet.
Sure He can...Jesus CANNOT POSSIBLY BE SPEAKING ABOUT 70AD!
And, there didn't need to be - because, that is not what the passage is saying...there is not one single scrap of evidence that ANYBODY was standing, sitting or doing jumping jacks in the Holy Place of the Temple, publicly blaspheming and publicly proclaiming himself to be God back in 70 AD.
Luke gives us a very good look at this portion of Matthew 24:15 When ye therefore shall see the abomination of desolation.It is okay to examine the detail and reason a conclusion about it; however, don't forget the "bigger picture"...
Verses 16-20 comprise the instructions that the Jew-Christians were to follow according to the recognition of what is being illustrated in verse 15.
'When ye therefore shall see...'
[then]
'follow these instructions'
(And don't waste any time doing it.)
There was a three-year seige before the Romans took the city and destroyed the temple.
The Jew-Christians followed the instructions before/as the seige began.
What did they 'see' - before/as the seige began - three years before the temple was ever touched or destroyed - that they instantly recognized as being what was illustrated in verse 15?
hint:
( whoso readeth, let him understand: )
Banal and insipid generalities that do not invoke the necessity of the "end of the age" and the prophecies thereof........are pretty much useless.
The coming Kingdom is what everything is all about. Reducing everything down to a mere anthropic denominator is folly.
Oh, sorry - it would be helpful to add - after reading that web page, it will be helpful to look at this one:It does not say that. (The 'timing' of your statement is in error.)
The answer you seek is fully explained here:
http://mywebsite.us/BibleStudy/Seventy_Weeks.html
I posted this link earlier in this thread.
Have you read it?
This anti-Pretribulation Rapture propaganda has been making the rounds for a long time. It is as worthless as any propaganda, since all propaganda is based on lies.
As I have said many times, Christ revealed the Pretribulation Rapture in John 14:1-3 BEFORE His crucifixion in 30 AD. Long before Darby or anyone else. He did not fill out all the details, which would be done by the other apostles. But when all the passages regarding the Resurrection/Rapture are properly collated and connected, there should not even be any argument about this important doctrine.
The real issue is that most Christians do not understand the spiritual significance of the Resurrection/Rapture and its connection to salvation. Therefore they continue to stumble over the sequence of events. Some continue to present the bizarre notion that the Rapture and the Second Coming are one and the same! This is similar to the bizarre notion that "the prince that shall come" in Daniel is Christ, rather than the Antichrist.
The "critical" thing being that 'Jerusalem compassed with armies' is the "sign" that the Jew-Christians 'saw' - that they immediately understood was the prophetic moment that they needed to "get out of Dodge NOW"...Luke gives us a very good look at this portion of Matthew 24:15 When ye therefore shall see the abomination of desolation.
Luke tells us this Abomination is 20 And when ye shall see Jerusalem compassed with armies, then know that the desolation thereof is nigh.
So like I was explaining to CV5, the Abomination [standing] in the Holy of Hollies is the Armies compassed around Jerusalem.
But he wants to twist my posts because he is in complete Denial of what Christ is saying in Matthew 24:15.
Plus, Luke does not even call it an abomination!
Doctrine of imminency? No you've got it all wrong.
You fail to understand that Jesus' use of the term "the day and the hour" is a Hebrew idiom pertaining to the sighting of the new moon at Rosh Hashanah. What's implied in that term is that indeed, everyone knows that Rosh Hashanah is coming inevitably. The whole village the whole nation. They generally know the season and the month of the year. They see the new year on the horizon it is inevitable. But the precise time of the sighting of the new moon is completely unknown. Therefore they have to set up a vigilant WATCH to determine the precise arrival.
Such as it is today. The vigilant understand that these days are the end times and the fulfillment of PROPHECY shall be consummated.
The fulfillment of prophecy is always key. Fulfillment of prophecy must always be integrated for the simple reason that it must needs to be fulfilled.
And, there is a reason for that...Plus, Luke does not even call it an abomination!
All three of these passages are speaking of the very same exact thing:
~ Matthew 24:15-20
~ Mark 13:14-18
~ Luke 21:20-23a
I said to cv5 that 70 A.D. had NOTHING to do with Satan.
But he refuses to read that part so he can jump on his bandwagon.
BZZZZZZZZZZTWell, Matthew 24:4 and following (through chpt 25) is not about the events surrounding 70ad.
Luke 21:12-24a is about the events surrounding 70ad (and note that v.12 says "BUT BEFORE ALL THESE [*before all these* beginning of birth pangs just mentioned in vv.8-11]"... BEFORE ALL THOSE, the 70ad events of vv.12-24a must happen PRIOR TO those).
Matthew 24:4-8 then PICKS UP THE SCENE at [/speaking OF] the "beginning of birth pangs"... and then the passage describes what unfolds from there (with v.15[21] FOLLOWING the beginning of birth pangs... therefore is NOT describing the 70ad events, which [sequentially] PRECEDE THEM, see).
So... Matthew 24:15[21] is NOT describing the same events that Lk21:23,20-21 does... because of these SEQUENCE issues in the Olivet Discourse. They are TWO DISTINCT "SEE-then-FLEE" events (occurring at wholly differing time-slots!) Many people overlook this fact.