How do you know that the Jesus is not the "Man" in Lev27:28 that is "set[ting] apart" [or, has 'set apart'] something or someone/s or some place ELSE (besides Himself) as "qodes qadasim [H6944 H6944] " (to the LORD)... and doing/does the "anoint" thing (at a different time from when He Himself was "anointed" according to your view)?? [Dan9:24]
Just askin'...
[I'm thinking of verses like Acts 17:31 - "31 because He has set [/fixed / established] a day in which He will judge [a]the world in righteousness [b]through [/in / en] a Man whom He has appointed, having furnished proof to all people [c]by raising Him from the dead.” (note: not "a singular 24-hr day," mind you)]
Because Jesus offered up himself