^
@randyk [
re: your Post -
https://christianchat.com/threads/5...ure-by-dr-john-f-walvoord.198357/post-4575164 and your comments about
"definitions" and so forth...], here's what I've put in past posts (in part...
for brevity):
--"the day of the Lord" is defined already in Scripture, and it is NOT how the "Amill-teachings" (etc) define it;
--ALSO, in every place that the phrase
"the day of the Lord" is
used in close proximity [/same contexts] as the phase
"IN THAT DAY," they always refer to the SAME TIME-PERIOD (and such is the case in this 2Th1&2 context, where Paul also uses BOTH PHRASES, meaning the IDENTICAL *time-period* [future]);
--1:7-8 says, "ye who are troubled rest/repose with us
IN THE REVELATION OF the Lord Jesus from heaven
with His mighty angels [note: "7 angels... 7 trumpets... 7 vials
] in flaming fire
INFLICTING *VENGEANCE ON them that..." (on those *same* persons that 2Th2:10-12 says that "GOD
SHALL SEND TO THEM great delusion,
SO THAT they should believe
the LIE / the FALSE / the PSEUDEI" *
during* that SAME FUTURE, SPECIFIC,
LIMITED TIME-PERIOD) [
*where "
AVENGE IN QUICKNESS [NOUN]" (Lk18:8) is the SAME TIME-PERIOD that
Rev1:1 / 1:19c / 4:1 says of "the things which must come to pass
IN QUICKNESS [NOUN]" (same phrase also in Rom16:20 "shall CRUSH Satan UNDER YOUR FEET *
IN QUICKNESS [NOUN]"...)
ALL speaking of that SAME *future*, specific,
LIMITED time-period we call "the 7-yr Trib" (
i.e. from SEAL #1 to His RETURN to the earth in Rev19)].
--Paul, in using these TWO RELATED PHRASES (again,
in the SAME CONTEXT, chpts 1 & 2... under the second entry above), is telling of the TWO
CONTRASTING *beliefs* ppl will be coming to IN / DURING / WITHIN the future TRIB yrs [
FOLLOWING "our Rapture" event!]... *CONTRASTING* beliefs, but in/within the SAME future *TIME-PERIOD* ("
the day of the Lord / IN THAT DAY" is the SAME *future* time-period... just as
these two related phrases have been used throughout Scripture in the OT, but which the "Amill-teachings" [etc] completely disregard,
by their own "made up" definition)
--Paul had already acknowledged in his first letter that the Thessalonians "KNOW PERFECTLY" the manner of the ARRIVAL of "the DOTL"... that it will be like the INITIAL "birth PANG [
SINGULAR; 1Th5:
2-3]" that COMES UPON a woman... and this is exactly what Jesus had ALSO *already* spoken of, in His Olivet Discourse!! (Matt24:4/Mk13:5, in "the beginning of birth PANGS [PLURAL]" that He spoke of, Matt24:4-8/Mk13:5-8 and DESCRIBED [LIKEWISE] in Lk21:8-11)
--[keep in mind that I could say
tons more, and have in past posts... I'm trying to stay BRIEF here, LOL]
--in the Latin Vulgate, 400s (long before "Darby"
et al) it uses the word "
discessio" which means "departure"...
[quoting old post]
[quoting from "WordHippo]
What does
discessio mean in Latin? (wordhippo.com)
--"More meanings for
discessio
departure
noun"
____________
[quoting again from "WordHippo"]
What's the Latin word for
departure? Here's a list of translations.
More Latin words for
departure
discessus
noun
separation, parting, going away, marching off, decamping
-
https://www.wordhippo.com/what-is/the/latin-word-for-8eb9612e70b5f2464138e25aa0a6b15100e60b80.html#/
____________
The Latin Vulgate (400s), a Latin word was used that means "departure" / "a departing":
ne quis vos seducat ullo modo quoniam nisi venerit discessio primum et revelatus fuerit homo peccati filius perditionis
[end quoting old post]
____________
--Liddell and Scott's Greek-English Lexicon (1871) also says the SAME POINT: "
apostasia =
apostasis [
apo STASIS]= a standing away from [a previous standing], or DEPARTURE
[see also the word
"STASIS / STASIN" ^ used in its
9th occurrence,
as compared with its previous 8 occurrences... and note especially ITS CONTEXT: "... while the first tabernacle [the one IN THE WILDERNESS,
per the 'furnishings' of v.4] yet having
A STANDING [/STASIN (STASIS)]: which is
A PARABLE for
the PRESENT TIME..."; yes... the word in 2Th2:3 can LEGIT be translated "THE DEPARTURE" (i.e. a SPECIFIC ONE!! And one
already referred to in the context [another function of the "definite article" pointing BACK TO such]... i.e. the one referred to in v.1)]
--the word "
apostasia" was also used in that era for "the departing of a fever" " the departing of a boat from a dock"
--the word was also, in the FIRST SEVEN ENGLISH TRANSLATIONS (
before kjv existed), translated as "a departing" or "departure"... (and, of course, WE know "the definite article ['the']" is present in the Grk text, so should be there)
...so, it is not ME that is "changing the definitions" etc...
...and yes, grasping these things
very much so DOES impact the "understanding" of the text and what it is actually conveying