FreeGrace2 said:
2 Thess 2:1-3 proves that the rapture occurs at the Second Coming. But many reject the obvious.
Of course it does.
It sure would be helpful if you just left off all those brackets, parenthesis, carats, quote marks, etc when you type a paragraph.
For me to be in error, someone is going to have to PROVE that the "coming of the Lord" in v.1 cannot be the Second Advent, OR "our being gathered to Him" cannot be the rapture, also in v.1. Or, both of them can't be what I believe they are.
And in v.3, the words "that DAY", cannot refer to the DofL. Because the words "that day" obviously refer to a specific DAY, not a lengthy time period, which is what the DofL is.
So, what is "the coming of the Lord" in v.1 and what is "our being gathered to Him" in v.1?
And prove it.
2 Thess 2:1-3 proves that the rapture occurs at the Second Coming. But many reject the obvious.
No it doesn't.
That passage ^ proves "our Rapture [IN THE AIR]" takes place prior to "the day of the Lord" [earthly] time-period (which itself commences with the INITIAL "birth PANG [SINGULAR]" per 1Th5:2-3 / Matt24:4/Mk13:5... that is, well-before His Second Coming to the earth at His "MANIFESTATION" v.8b point in time [ / 'OPENLY MANIFEST' 1Tim6:15]).
For me to be in error, someone is going to have to PROVE that the "coming of the Lord" in v.1 cannot be the Second Advent, OR "our being gathered to Him" cannot be the rapture, also in v.1. Or, both of them can't be what I believe they are.
And in v.3, the words "that DAY", cannot refer to the DofL. Because the words "that day" obviously refer to a specific DAY, not a lengthy time period, which is what the DofL is.
So, what is "the coming of the Lord" in v.1 and what is "our being gathered to Him" in v.1?
And prove it.