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I have likely already answered every, if not most, questions you have for me concerning this subject. I'm not going to re-argue my points in the same thread.
But here is a summary:
-Certain angels sinned
-Peter clarifies that they sinned during the time of Noah
-Jude described their sin as comparable to the sins on Sodom and Gomorrah ("leaving their proper abode...fornication"
-These are not the angels that Jesus referred to (Matt 22:30, Luke 12:25); Jesus spoke of the angels in heaven, not the fallen angels.
-Angels have been shown throughout the Scriptures to be able to materialize; they are not merely spiritual beings.
-(new) Not only are there very solid evidence for the angle view of Genesis 6:1-4, but there are dozens of cogent Biblical refutations for the Sethite view (For example, national and racial distinctions were not distinguished until the subsequent intervention of God in Genesis 11). "Where there is no law, there is no violation" (Rom 4). Since God didn't separate the nations based on lineage until Genesis 11, it was not sinful for them to marry other women. So the "sin" referred to by Peter cannot refer to human tribes marrying other human tribes prior to Genesis 11.
For details and references, feel free to review what I have already posted
But here is a summary:
-Certain angels sinned
-Peter clarifies that they sinned during the time of Noah
-Jude described their sin as comparable to the sins on Sodom and Gomorrah ("leaving their proper abode...fornication"
-These are not the angels that Jesus referred to (Matt 22:30, Luke 12:25); Jesus spoke of the angels in heaven, not the fallen angels.
-Angels have been shown throughout the Scriptures to be able to materialize; they are not merely spiritual beings.
-(new) Not only are there very solid evidence for the angle view of Genesis 6:1-4, but there are dozens of cogent Biblical refutations for the Sethite view (For example, national and racial distinctions were not distinguished until the subsequent intervention of God in Genesis 11). "Where there is no law, there is no violation" (Rom 4). Since God didn't separate the nations based on lineage until Genesis 11, it was not sinful for them to marry other women. So the "sin" referred to by Peter cannot refer to human tribes marrying other human tribes prior to Genesis 11.
For details and references, feel free to review what I have already posted
I honestly wonder why. I don't find it fruitful to continue to supply the same answers over and over and I agree that all reasonable and biblical efforts have been made to no avail and at some point, it is better to just leave the thread. The anger from some is palitable.
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