I know it isn't likely that any of you will watch this video, but I will post it anyway, someone might watch it and learn something.
I took the time to listen to / watch the entire 52-min+ video, last night, and I just have to say... Chris R should stay in his wheelhouse, but "Eschatology" is definitely not his!
I noted at least 10-12 [CATEGORIES of] pretty major problems with his take on things (all of which points I've addressed in-depth in past posts)... I could really only so much as LIST them here (for the sheer volume of text it would take to actually delve into them in any real depth, MY APOLOGIES--but, again, which points I've covered in some measure in past posts)...
Here are some of the PROBLEMS with it, I am detecting:
[
for those one or two who might be OUT THERE and vaguely interested in wading through this lengthy tome... I know, I know, ...it was even tedious for me to sit through watching the entire video and to jot notes on what I was hearing... so I don't blame anyone for NOT being interested!! = )
Just offering it here, in case...]
1) as an Amillennialist, he continually refers to the phrase "the end
of the WORLD" rather than to acknowledge that "the end [singular]
of the age [singular]" is to be FOLLOWED BY "the age [singular] to come" (and that "age [SINGULAR]" connects to
earth-time and -history--by that, I mean, while it still is in existence, and in contrast to "the ages [plural] of the ages [plural]" referring to "forever" etc);
2) his faulty assumption that "pre-tribbers" (or other viewpoints) "go to Revelation FIRST" and then FORCE-FIT the interpretion of other passages BASED ON IT (what he calls UNCLEAR Revelation/apocalyptic lit.), rather than the other way around--a very common but flawed-accusation / false-assumption of "pre-trib" and esp. "pre-MILL" viewpoints; but he is overlooking the fact that OTHER passages ELSEWHERE "say that SAME [basic] THING" (which he does not acknowledge);
... and that when it comes to Revelation (the parts that are associated to a particular topic/subject/category), one instead often finds
more specific detailing on the thing...
For example, the post I made on how "Rev19:19,21/16:14-16/20:5 parallels the
FIRST of
TWO "PUNISH" words in Isa24:21-22a[23]" and that
IN THIS ISAIAH TEXT a TIME-PERIOD then intervenes before the
SECOND of the
TWO "PUNISH" words is carried out...
JUST AS Rev19-20 ALSO SHOWS there to be (
but with the ADDED detail of the actual LENGTH of that intervening time-period)... but which "time-period" the "Amill-teachings"
completely disregard (not acknowledging these two sets of parallel texts I've pointed out here, and ignoring Isaiah 24:21-23 altogether [its TWO "PUNISH" words separated BY "TIME"]);
...along with Rev19:15b's ('
future tense' from that point in the chronology) "and He SHALL rule [/shepherd] them [/the nations] with a rod [/sceptre] of iron [righteousness and strength]"... where "nations" are on the earth (following His "RETURN" there).
The Isaiah 24 text IS CLEAR (and LITERAL) that a TIME-PERIOD separates the TWO "PUNISH" words [/events] in that text, and the FIRST one aligns with Rev19:19,21/16:14-16/20:5 (JUST LIKE Rev. shows!), at the time of His "RETURN" to the earth FOR the earthly MK age...
... not to mention what I've said before, that IN EVERY PASSAGE where the word "years" is used with ANY number accompanying it, it ALWAYS
MEANS [/
intends to convey to the readers' minds] "
THAT MANY YEARS".
3) [approx 4:00-mins in] he incorrectly states that the "WEEKS" in Daniel's "70 WEEKS" prophecy is "obviously
symbolic/symbolical [otherwise it would amount to something like a literal year and a quarter, or some such, he suggests]"... but this shows his ignorance of the Hebrew word for "WEEKS" which doesn't have to mean "week of 7
DAYS" (like OUR English word "week" means)... but CAN MEAN *either* "[a set of SEVEN]
DAYS" *OR* "[a set of SEVEN]
YEARS" (
UNlike OUR English word for "week")...
So the TEXT states "70 'SEVENS' are determined upon"... and the CONTEXT determines whether it's speaking of "a set of seven
DAYS" or "a set of seven
YEARS" but
BOTH / EITHER "set" [/lit. 'SEVEN']
is LITERAL! It is NOT saying "a SYMBOLICAL week that really represents something ELSE"... NO. The text itself ACTUALLY,
LITERALLY MEANS "70 'SEVENS'" (70 sets-of-SEVEN, whether DAYS or YEARS,
LITERALLY!)
4) [approx @ 5:33-5:44] his mention of "apocalyptic" literature / texts (see this link, to save my typing fingers:
https://drreluctant.wordpress.com/2017/12/28/apocalyptic-fixation/ [quoting from article] "Before swallowing
the ideas of apocalyptic literature it is wise to examine
the presuppositions of those who promote it."
[more at link])
5) [approx @17:40 - 18:00 (and again around 40:20)] his explanation of Matthew 24's mention of the "AOD" is completely OFF, because he disregards the "chronology issues" of the Olivet Discourse... where actually one "SEE-then-FLEE" takes place
"BEFORE ALL" the beginning of birth PANGS, per v.12 [which are described in Matt24:4-8 / Mk13:5-8 / Lk21:8-11], and the OTHER "SEE-then-FLEE" takes place AFTER "the beginning of birth PANGS" (which he doesn't even
define those correctly either);
...the "AOD [A-singular, of D-singular]" connects back to Dan12:11 (with its specific "day-amounts" in that CONTEXT), and Daniel is told he will STAND IN HIS LOT at the END of the days (i.e. be resurrected ['to stand again' on the earth] at the END of those days, thus this CANNOT be referring to the events surrounding 70ad as he suggests (though Lk21:12-24a/b DOES speak of the 70ad events, Matthew 24's text [in Jesus' response] DOES NOT COVER it at all, but covers that which STARTS OUT with the "BoBPs" which take place
AFTER the 70ad events [and ITS own "SEE-then-FLEE"]... Luke 21:12 said so);
...the video-speaker supplies
no grammatical reasoning for his suggesting
[around the 30:05-mark] that v.21's "
FOR THEN SHALL THERE BE" *
not* connecting directly to what is stated just before this verse (as he suggests), but instead just says he thinks the break [spans-of-time, -break] occurs just here (to now refer to the far-future events, sudden-like,
with no regard at all to the words "FOR THEN" and why they are there)
6) [approx @34:08] re: Matt24:27, says "it's going to be OBVIOUS!" (yes, hello, the CONTEXT is His Second Coming TO THE EARTH, of course it will be obvious... but the CONTEXT is not covering the Subject of "our Rapture" AT ALL, anywhere in His Olivet Discourse!)...
...again, he says, "corpses... vultures... OBVIOUS!" (yes, but that is NOT what takes place at the time of "our Rapture" but of His Second Coming TO THE EARTH point in the chronology, which Second Coming to the earth [BY CONTRAST] has the angels being instructed to "gather ye
FIRST the TARES"--this is the EXACT OPPOSITE SEQUENCE from that which takes place at the time of "our Rapture")
[continued in next post]