Actually slavery in the time of the apostles was nothing like the slavery experienced in the West. Slavery was far more benevolent during Paul's day. But it serves your purpose to couch it that fashion.
For the cause of Christ
Roger
If the conditions of the slave were exactly like it was in the first century it would still not be correct for you to send the slave back to his owner and claim that we must do exactly what Paul did. You know full well that cultural conditions having changed allow you to help that slave find legal protection and sanctuary not afforded to him at the time of Paul. (i.e. cultural changes.)
Cultural context in hermeneutics is extremely important in understanding authorial intent and applying the underlying principles to our current cultural and situation in life. This has nothing to do with justifying sin based on cultural acceptance.
It was not ok for Christians to fornicate in the first century because it was culturally acceptable. It is not ok today. But some things have a cultural context such as eating meats offered to idols bought in the market place. Not many if any of on on the planet today are actually dealing with that issue. However so much is said about it that we look for the underlying principle and we can find other cultural applications to our day.
We do not send a slave back to his owner today because we have a cultural society that will offer them legal protection and sanctuary from their oppressors having governments that have outlawed slavery and do not rule on the behalf of the slave owners.
We understand that the Christian, human compassion, law of love, would have us to save and protect that slave and we would not use Philemon to justify sending them back to their owner (even if his conditions were the same in the country of origin in question, as they would be for Onesimus in the first century)
Knowing that you would agree with that if you were being intellectually honest enough to allow yourself to concede, I will now promote and forward the premise that there were conditions for women in the first century that would be illegal today in modern cultures because they were treated also as property and slaves without the God given human rights they deserved.
We should not take scriptures that assume in a first century male dominated culture that a male will most commonly be appointed an elder and therefore the male pronoun used by Paul in describing examples of blamelessness proves beyond a shadow of a doubt that Paul mean to establish a Pauline New Testament Law banning the female sex from ever being considered spiritual enough, seasoned enough, educated, gifted, mentally or naturally capable enough, or blameless enough, to serve the body of Christ in that same office.
Since he did not specifically say that the elder should be a man
because God does not allow women, but it is only inferred because the statement used male examples is a very weak argument to assume such an authorial intent not specifically stated. Therefore it will NEVER be possible to prove that Paul was saying "An elder must never be a female" and you will always be in danger of being mistaken.