Favourite Bible Translations

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John146

Senior Member
Jan 13, 2016
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You keep going with this silly equivocation. Do you not understand why it is invalid?
It means that God can take what has been said in one language and perfectly translate it into another language and the translation be better than what was originally spoken even though the translation is not word for word. The translation is inspired by God. Facts!
 

John146

Senior Member
Jan 13, 2016
17,177
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Building doctrine from single verses taken out of context from different parts of Scripture? That's not going to fly with me. I'm not going to entertain your subtle slander either. If you want to insult me, step up and do it openly.
This verse isn’t true? There is truth in the verse.
 

John146

Senior Member
Jan 13, 2016
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I consult the Interlinear and the Berean Literal Bible. However, I also look at any given verse in the other translations, listing them in parallel so that I can see how each one translates the verse at the same time. Example:

New International Version
The revelation from Jesus Christ, which God gave him to show his servants what must soon take place. He made it known by sending his angel to his servant John,

New Living Translation
This is a revelation from Jesus Christ, which God gave him to show his servants the events that must soon take place. He sent an angel to present this revelation to his servant John,

English Standard Version
The revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave him to show to his servants the things that must soon take place. He made it known by sending his angel to his servant John,

Berean Study Bible
This is the revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave Him to show His servants what must soon come to pass. He made it known by sending His angel to His servant John,

Berean Literal Bible
The revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave Him to show to His bond-servants what things it behooves to take place in quickness. And He signified it through having sent His angel to His servant, John,

New American Standard Bible
The Revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave Him to show to His bond-servants, the things which must soon take place; and He sent and communicated it by His angel to His bond-servant John,

New King James Version
The Revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave Him to show His servants—things which must shortly take place. And He sent and signified it by His angel to His servant John,

King James Bible
The Revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave unto him, to shew unto his servants things which must shortly come to pass; and he sent and signified it by his angel unto his servant John:

Christian Standard Bible
The revelation of Jesus Christ that God gave him to show his servants what must soon take place. He made it known by sending his angel to his servant John,

Contemporary English Version
This is what God showed to Jesus Christ, so that he could tell his servants what must happen soon. Christ then sent his angel with the message to his servant John.

Good News Translation
This book is the record of the events that Jesus Christ revealed. God gave him this revelation in order to show to his servants what must happen very soon. Christ made these things known to his servant John by sending his angel to him,

Holman Christian Standard Bible
The revelation of Jesus Christ that God gave Him to show His slaves what must quickly take place. He sent it and signified it through His angel to His slave John,

International Standard Version
This is the revelation of Jesus the Messiah, which God gave him to show his servants the things that must happen soon. He made it known by sending his messenger to his servant John,

NET Bible
The revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave him to show his servants what must happen very soon. He made it clear by sending his angel to his servant John,

New Heart English Bible
This is the Revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave him to show to his servants the things which must happen soon, which he sent and made known by his angel to his servant, John,

A Faithful Version
The revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave to Him, to show to His servants the things that are ordained to come to pass shortly; and He made it known, having sent it by His angel to His servant John;

Aramaic Bible in Plain English
The Revelation of Yeshua The Messiah, which God gave to him, to show his Servants what had been given to soon occur, and he symbolized it when he sent by his Angel to his Servant Yohannan,

GOD'S WORD® Translation
This is the revelation of Jesus Christ. God gave it to him to show his servants the things that must happen soon. He sent this revelation through his angel to his servant John.

New American Standard 1977
The Revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave Him to show to His bond-servants, the things which must shortly take place; and He sent and communicated it by His angel to His bond-servant John,

King James 2000 Bible
The Revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave unto him, to show unto his servants things which must shortly come to pass; and he sent and revealed it by his angel unto his servant John:

American King James Version
The Revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave to him, to show to his servants things which must shortly come to pass; and he sent and signified it by his angel to his servant John:

American Standard Version
The Revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave him to show unto his servants, even the things which must shortly come to pass: and he sent and signified it by his angel unto his servant John;

Douay-Rheims Bible
The Revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave unto him, to make known to his servants the things which must shortly come to pass: and signified, sending by his angel to his servant John,

Darby Bible Translation
Revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave to him, to shew to his bondmen what must shortly take place; and he signified [it], sending by his angel, to his bondman John,

English Revised Version
The Revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave him to shew unto his servants, even the things which must shortly come to pass: and he sent and signified it by his angel unto his servant John;

Webster's Bible Translation
The Revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave to him, to show to his servants things which must shortly come to pass; and he sent and signified it by his angel to his servant John:

Weymouth New Testament
The revelation given by Jesus Christ, which God granted Him, that He might make known to His servants certain events which must shortly come to pass: and He sent His angel and communicated it to His servant John.

World English Bible
This is the Revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave him to show to his servants the things which must happen soon, which he sent and made known by his angel to his servant, John,

Young's Literal Translation
A revelation of Jesus Christ, that God gave to him, to shew to his servants what things it behoveth to come to pass quickly; and he did signify it, having sent through his messenger to his servant John,
How do you decide which one to go with? Whatever you choose, it is your decision. You are being your own final authority. I don’t want that responsibility.
 

Magenta

Senior Member
Jul 3, 2015
61,166
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As usual, the bible disagrees with you. In case you don't understand what the mouth of God is, it's the bible.
That means the mouth of God did not exist until Scriptures began to be written. I would have to disagree with that. Now, if you were to say instead that the mouth of God was His Living Eternal Word, that would be different. I can jive with that :)
 
Nov 23, 2013
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1Pe 1:23 Being born again, not of corruptible seed, but of incorruptible, by the word of God, which liveth and abideth for ever.

Believers are born again by the BIBLE. How can we be born again of incorruptible seed if our bible is corrupt?

That is an immature response to textual examination. It increases my faith knowing that we can examine these things and make an educated decision instead of blindly following the work of a translators who are not the original writers. Give me the source over the translations. If I find that the translator made a mistake it increases my faith that the manuscripts are preserved in such a condition that I can determine that. Don't you see that? The Word in it's original language and autographs is not corrupt. Getting to that source may sometimes be a challenge but it is there for those who are not afraid of examining it.
You're not increasing your faith when you examine those things and make an "educated decision", you are removing yourself further and further from the simple self evident truth. The bible doesn't tell us to study the concordances to show ourselves approved. The words of the bible FORM the Christ in us, that is the 2nd birth. There's not a little Jesus man living in us, the spirit of Christ IS THE INERRANT WORD OF GOD, dwelling within this HUMAN BODY, the BODY OF THE SPIRIT OF CHRIST.

The Spirit of Christ isn't corrupt in any language but there are many, many COUNTERFEIT CHRIST's in all languages. And when you pick the saying's of this spirit of antichrist, and the sayings of that spirit of antichrist and mix that with the SPIRIT OF CHRIST, you ARE NOT keeping God's word.

You are believing and teaching others to believe that the Spirit of Christ is corrupt, incomplete, in a state of disarray and that it's up to the believer to fix it.

Just so that you understand where I'm coming from. I'm say that the BIBLE is the Spirit of Christ, we are the BODY of Christ because that Spirit of Christ (the bible) lives within us.
 
Nov 23, 2013
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That means the mouth of God did not exist until Scriptures began to be written. I would have to disagree with that. Now, if you were to say instead that the mouth of God was His Living Eternal Word, that would be different. I can jive with that :)
The mouth of God is the medium God speaks to his people in. In OT times, the word of the Lord came and spoke directly to the prophets. When the Word became flesh, the mouth of God became the Old and New Testaments. At least I've never heard the audible voice of God in my life time.
 
S

Scribe

Guest
1Pe 1:23 Being born again, not of corruptible seed, but of incorruptible, by the word of God, which liveth and abideth for ever.

Believers are born again by the BIBLE. How can we be born again of incorruptible seed if our bible is corrupt?


You're not increasing your faith when you examine those things and make an "educated decision", you are removing yourself further and further from the simple self evident truth. The bible doesn't tell us to study the concordances to show ourselves approved. The words of the bible FORM the Christ in us, that is the 2nd birth. There's not a little Jesus man living in us, the spirit of Christ IS THE INERRANT WORD OF GOD, dwelling within this HUMAN BODY, the BODY OF THE SPIRIT OF CHRIST.

The Spirit of Christ isn't corrupt in any language but there are many, many COUNTERFEIT CHRIST's in all languages. And when you pick the saying's of this spirit of antichrist, and the sayings of that spirit of antichrist and mix that with the SPIRIT OF CHRIST, you ARE NOT keeping God's word.

You are believing and teaching others to believe that the Spirit of Christ is corrupt, incomplete, in a state of disarray and that it's up to the believer to fix it.

Just so that you understand where I'm coming from. I'm say that the BIBLE is the Spirit of Christ, we are the BODY of Christ because that Spirit of Christ (the bible) lives within us.
The original text is not the KJV. Learn Greek and Hebrew and stop speaking nonsense.
 

Magenta

Senior Member
Jul 3, 2015
61,166
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The mouth of God is the medium God speaks to his people in. In OT times, the word of the Lord came and spoke directly to the prophets. When the Word became flesh, the mouth of God became the Old and New Testaments. At least I've never heard the audible voice of God in my life time.
The Living Word pre-existed His physical incarnation. I know you know this :) Instead of medium, I would say "agency." Agency: a thing or person that acts to produce a particular result. Everything that exists came into being through Jesus.
 
Nov 23, 2013
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The Living Word pre-existed His physical incarnation. I know you know this :) Instead of medium, I would say "agency." Agency: a thing or person that acts to produce a particular result. Everything that exists came into being through Jesus.
You're right medium does sound a little "new agee". :)
 

Magenta

Senior Member
Jul 3, 2015
61,166
30,312
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You're right medium does sound a little "new agee". :)
Medium sounds physical to me... although looking it up now, the primary definition is: an agency or means of doing something. Still, I prefer agency :D The other entries for the word medium do suggest a more physical substance.
 
E

eternally-gratefull

Guest
I prefer the NKJV but only because I have used the KJV/NKJV since I first was introduced to Church when I was like 5. But not because it is a superior version, God can use any of the mainstream versions to share his word, if We want a deeper study, we need to go deeper into the word by looking at the original languages anyway
 
Nov 23, 2013
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You are right! It is not complicated. God inspired the writers of the original manuscripts that were passed around and recopied over and over again. Some got translated into Latin, Syriac, and other ANE (Ancient Near East) languages. The manuscripts were memorized and copied over and over, till there were manuscripts from Israel to Britain. Then the Roman church demanded the Bible should be read only in Greek, Jerome's Latin translation, which was particularly bad, because Jerome's Greek was weak and his Hebrew worse. Meanwhile, the Byzantines in the Eastern Church, which became the Orthodox church just kept pushing their own Greek manuscripts. Enter the 15th century. Erasmus, a Catholic priest translates the Bible into Latin, by comparing to Jerome's Vulgate, and 6 or 7 very late, corrupted Byzantine manuscripts. Copied around the 15th century!

The KJV committee mostly relied on Erasmus' new Latin translation, and the corrupted manuscripts. But they noted in their preface, as more and more manuscripts were found, there would be need to have new translations as Biblical scholars found new information on translating.

However, some people got very stuck in the KJV, made up a list of lies and started to convince people the KJV was the "only" Bible, forgetting the huge difference between 16th century English and 21st century English, and they have been a stumbling block to the gospel ever since.

I didn't get saved till I starting reading the Bible in modern English. (Of course the Holy Spirit was also huge in my salvation!) I never understood the gospel till I could read it in my English, not some 500 year old dead language.

So we know the words of the Bible because we look at the original languages, and other languages in the earliest manuscripts. Not because the KJV is the standard, translated 1500 years after the original autographs were written. The original languages are the bar, or standard. Not the KJV in 16th century English!
People can't even make up their minds which manuscript line is the right line. I don't know how that could be the gold standard and I don't see how that keeping God's words.

If we were talking about the blueprints for Solomon's temple and two sets of blueprints existed, each giving different dimensions and one had rooms that didn't exist in the other blueprint, how would we know which blueprint was "inspired" by God?

The inspired blueprint is the one that reflects the image of Christ.
 

Angela53510

Senior Member
Jan 24, 2011
11,786
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Just one clear example though were the Greek is clearer and Better to understand than the kjv ?
I just gave you an example from Luke 2:17, it's in the post you quoted here. It is a mistake that affects theology.

Do you believe in universalism, where everyone gets saved, no matter what people do, they are saved even if they don't believe in Christ!? That is what the KJV says in this verse.

Or do you believe that God gives his peace to those who love him? This is biblical theology. God gives his peace to those that are truly saved. No universalism at all. "And in earth, peace towards men of good will." IOW, to have good will means you follow God, and that you are saved. The first case, is caused by an extra letter on the word eudokia, the genitive case, found in most translations, versus eudokias, the nominative case which supports universalism. So Greek pinpoints the error in the KJV, which because of a passed down letter, sigma, which appeared in the later Byzantine manuscripts. Universalism is a heresy, and I don't believe the KJV translators really thought through the large implications of adding a sigma and turning it to the nominative case to the genitive case.l, with no universalism.

Here is the link which it explains what I am talking about. The Greek proves the mistake of the added sigma, which changes a piece of normal theology into a heresy.

https://www.biblicalfoundations.org/peace-earth-good-will-toward-men/

Read it carefully. If it didn't change doctrine, to a heresy, I would not worry about it. Instead, the KJV has improperly translated, or the manuscripts were corrupted, and they are wrong . KJV = 0 Greek = 1!

In conclusion, because of a copyist's error in writing down like 2, it was translated in a way that is heretical. The is a very small error, with great impact.
 

throughfaith

Well-known member
Aug 4, 2020
10,467
1,593
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I just gave you an example from Luke 2:17, it's in the post you quoted here. It is a mistake that affects theology.

Do you believe in universalism, where everyone gets saved, no matter what people do, they are saved even if they don't believe in Christ!? That is what the KJV says in this verse.

Or do you believe that God gives his peace to those who love him? This is biblical theology. God gives his peace to those that are truly saved. No universalism at all. "And in earth, peace towards men of good will." IOW, to have good will means you follow God, and that you are saved. The first case, is caused by an extra letter on the word eudokia, the genitive case, found in most translations, versus eudokias, the nominative case which supports universalism. So Greek pinpoints the error in the KJV, which because of a passed down letter, sigma, which appeared in the later Byzantine manuscripts. Universalism is a heresy, and I don't believe the KJV translators really thought through the large implications of adding a sigma and turning it to the nominative case to the genitive case.l, with no universalism.

Here is the link which it explains what I am talking about. The Greek proves the mistake of the added sigma, which changes a piece of normal theology into a heresy.

https://www.biblicalfoundations.org/peace-earth-good-will-toward-men/

Read it carefully. If it didn't change doctrine, to a heresy, I would not worry about it. Instead, the KJV has improperly translated, or the manuscripts were corrupted, and they are wrong . KJV = 0 Greek = 1!

In conclusion, because of a copyist's error in writing down like 2, it was translated in a way that is heretical. The is a very small error, with great impact.
Luke 2 .17 ?
 

Magenta

Senior Member
Jul 3, 2015
61,166
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When they had seen him, they spread the word concerning what had been told them about
this child, and all who heard it were amazed at what the shepherds said to them.
(+ 18)
 

Angela53510

Senior Member
Jan 24, 2011
11,786
2,959
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People can't even make up their minds which manuscript line is the right line. I don't know how that could be the gold standard and I don't see how that keeping God's words.

If we were talking about the blueprints for Solomon's temple and two sets of blueprints existed, each giving different dimensions and one had rooms that didn't exist in the other blueprint, how would we know which blueprint was "inspired" by God?

The inspired blueprint is the one that reflects the image of Christ.
You just keep using circular logic, and go no where.

The KJV, for no known reasons is the inspired blueprint that reflects the image of Christ or the imago dei.

Therefore we must use the KJV to confirm every word, because it is perfect. But an error in Luke 2:17, has been found which is one added letter, sigma, which changed a genitive noun to a nominative case noun, as per the KJV. The KJV literally says that God's peace is on everyone's, which is universalism. The older manuscripts, closer to the original autographs, literally says God's favour rests on men of good will, or the saved, only.

So you KJV falls short of perfection, and teaches heresy because of the added sigma at the end of eudokia.

To show you what I mean:

"The inspired blueprint is the one that reflects the image of Christ." Because we have shown the KJV is wrong in one verse in Luke 2, it cannot be the correct blueprint. Instead, the original languages reflect the image of God, and they are the gold standard which are right, not the KJV with errors.

Got it?
 
Nov 23, 2013
13,684
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I just gave you an example from Luke 2:17, it's in the post you quoted here. It is a mistake that affects theology.

Do you believe in universalism, where everyone gets saved, no matter what people do, they are saved even if they don't believe in Christ!? That is what the KJV says in this verse.

Or do you believe that God gives his peace to those who love him? This is biblical theology. God gives his peace to those that are truly saved. No universalism at all. "And in earth, peace towards men of good will." IOW, to have good will means you follow God, and that you are saved. The first case, is caused by an extra letter on the word eudokia, the genitive case, found in most translations, versus eudokias, the nominative case which supports universalism. So Greek pinpoints the error in the KJV, which because of a passed down letter, sigma, which appeared in the later Byzantine manuscripts. Universalism is a heresy, and I don't believe the KJV translators really thought through the large implications of adding a sigma and turning it to the nominative case to the genitive case.l, with no universalism.

Here is the link which it explains what I am talking about. The Greek proves the mistake of the added sigma, which changes a piece of normal theology into a heresy.

https://www.biblicalfoundations.org/peace-earth-good-will-toward-men/

Read it carefully. If it didn't change doctrine, to a heresy, I would not worry about it. Instead, the KJV has improperly translated, or the manuscripts were corrupted, and they are wrong . KJV = 0 Greek = 1!

In conclusion, because of a copyist's error in writing down like 2, it was translated in a way that is heretical. The is a very small error, with great impact.
I don't understand the supposed problem. In Luke 2:10 the angel brings good news of great joy to ALL PEOPLE.
Luke 2:14 is the details of the good news.
Is Luke 2:10 wrong also?

Luk 2:10 And the angel said unto them, Fear not: for, behold, I bring you good tidings of great joy, which shall be to all people.
Luk 2:14 Glory to God in the highest, and on earth peace, good will toward men.