What is your BEST PROOF for a pre-trib Rapture?

[Absolutely]

Is Matthew 24 addressed to the Church of Christ, or the Jews?

Jesus gives the answer in Mark 13v37, “What I say unto you, I say unto all, Watch.” By giving this command to His apostles, Jesus instructs all His Church. The apostles were Israelites, but they were the apostles of the Church, and Jesus spoke to them in this capacity, as Christian believers. If Matt 24 is not to be looked upon as applicable to Christians, because it is “Jewish,” who is to decide what is Jewish and what is Christian? The Gospels are, with a few exceptions, a record of Christ’s ministry to Israelites, but they contain His vital teachings for His Church. The epistles of Peter, James and Hebrews are written to Jews, are we to set these aside? Never! They contain indispensable Christian truth. Was the New Covenant of Matt 26v28, just for the Jews, because it was only spoken to the apostles? Of course not! it is for every believer in Christ Jesus.

The refusal to recognise that the truths of Matt 24 were addressed to the Church, has driven some to utter folly in their reasoning, it is reported that some have even looked upon the Lord's prayer and the Lord's Supper as “Jewish ordinances,” and not applicable to the Church of Christ. If Matt 24 was spoken to the apostles as Jews and not as Christians, how were they to know it? How shall we know what New Testament Scriptures apply to us? What use would these prophecies be to Jews who do not believe in Christ? It would be very strange if the earnest warnings of Christ in Matt 24, Mark 13, and Luke17 and 21, were not addressed to Christians, but to Jews who have no faith in Christ. How can those who say that Matt 24 was written for Jews, use Matt 24v36,42 as their major text to prove that Christ may come at any moment for His Church? What kind of Scripture expositor uses a chapter which states that the coming of Christ is preceded by very clear signs, and warns against a secret second advent, to prove that there is a secret advent and rapture of the Church without those signs? Particularly when its advocates say that Matt 24 is addressed only to the Jews, and not to the Church. The pretribulation rapture theory has become widely accepted because Western Christians are unwilling to suffer persecution for Christ's sake. Heb 11v25. As someone has said, “It is an interesting fact that the pretribulation rapture theory did not arise out of a suffering Church. It has come out of a Western civilisation that has been the most comfortable and pleasant in the whole history of Christianity.”

Some have said that the Church was not founded until the day of Pentecost; however, this can be shown to be wrong by many passages of Scripture. The apostles were converted before Pentecost; their names were “written in heaven,” Luke 10v20; they were “clean,” John 15v3; and they belonged to God. John 15v3. Pentecost was not the time when they were saved, they were rejoicing in their salvation before this, Pentecost was the time when they received the promise of the Father to His children, the baptism in the Holy Spirit. Luke 24v49,52,53. Christ said the Law and the prophets were until John, the age of grace and truth started when Jesus started His ministry. Matt 11v13, Luke 16v16, John 1v17. It is nonsense to say that Matt 24 was not spoken to the Church, because the Church did not exist until the day of Pentecost; God gave many promises that belong to the Church to the Old Testament prophets, many centuries before the day of Pentecost.

It is a lot worse than what you are pointing out.

 

[Absolutely]

The phrase is "the kingdom OF THE heavenS" (not speaking of "UP IN Heaven") and this speaks of "the promised and prophesied EARTHLY Millennial Kingdom" (promised to Israel... who [many of] WILL be coming to faith WITHIN the trib yrs [FOLLOWING "our Rapture/THE Departure/Relocation!"] and it is THESE who are [in THIS context] "the elect" who will be "gathered" into one place ON THE EARTH, at the END of the trib!

Compare Matthew 24:29-31 with Isaiah 27:12-13, where those of Israel will be "gathered ONE BY ONE" [NOT "AS ONE" as is true of "our Rapture"!] and by angels HE SHALL *SEND* to do so, at the "GREAT trumpet," and for THEM to "worship the Lord in the holy mount AT JERUSALEM"! (this is "EARTHLY," at the commencement of the MK age... just like in Isa24:21-22[23] and Daniel 7:[25]27, and other such passages...

Jesus said "my kingdom is not of this world"
Plus,not only is Jesus enthroned in heaven,but the kingdom is placed in heaven at the last supper and Jesus is Labeled king in heaven,in rev 14.

Pauline only doubletalk

 

[Hevosmies]

Abel was a Christian? Abel placed his trust in the resurrected Jesus Christ? Not. Abel had faith in God but not the cross of Christ. The Church began after the resurrection.

YES AND NO

The Christian Church as we call it today, SURE it was officially founded in Acts 2.

BUT lets not forget, there was a CHURCH before Acts 2! The Bible is clear on that.

Acts 7:38 This is he, that was in the church in the wilderness with the angel which spake to him in the mount Sina, and with our fathers: who received the lively oracles to give unto us:
Matthew 18:17 And if he shall neglect to hear them, tell it unto the church: but if he neglect to hear the church, let him be unto thee as an heathen man and a publican.

 

[presidente]

--verse 1 is our rapture;

--verse 2 is Paul telling them not to be convinced by anyone telling then that "the Day of the Lord IS PRESENT [PERFECT indicative]" ("the Day of the Lord" is biblically defined as: a-period-of-time-of-judgments-followed-by-a-period-of-time-of-blessings [ALL earthly-located]" and is the same time-period as the phrase "in that day" when these are used in close proximity throughout the Bible--chk that out; it is NOT defined as "a singular 24-hr day"... it lasts from the start of the 7-yr trib to the end of the 1000-yr reign of Christ on the earth (i.e. the "DARK/DARKNESS/IN THE NIGHT/SUNDOWN," and also the "SUN-of-righteousness-ARISE," and also the FULL LIGHT OF DAY/"reign...GLORIOUSLY"--all 3 of those aspects. So Paul is talking about the START of it... (the TRIB aspect of the DOTL), not to let anyone convince them it IS PRESENT (which would be most REASONABLE for them to be persuaded to be convinced of [tho false] BECAUSE of their present and ongoing tribulations and persecutions THEY WERE EXPERIENCING, per 1:4;

I see no evidence for a pre-trib rapture here.

--verse 3 is Paul telling them that that awful "time-period-[FROM-VERSE-2!]-consisting-of-JUDGMENTS[-aspect... that comes at its ARRIVAL/"BE-PRESENT"-of-the-DOTL-earthly-time-period-of-JUDGMENTS]" will NOT be present if not shall have come THE DEPARTURE *FIRST* (<--this is our rapture event that he just spoke of [FROM v.1!])..."

This seems to be a late development, later than dispensational pre-trib, which hasn't had its 200th anniversary yet. What I mean is the idea that the apostacy is really the rapture. This goes against historical interpretation and translation of the passage. Paul uses the same type of wording to describe that many will depart from the faith. In Matthew 24, Jesus describes how the love of many will wax cold before writing futher about the Great Tribulation.

In Jesus' words, we read about the great tribulation, and then we read about the coming of the Son of Man and that the elect will be gathered.

II Thessalonians 2
1 Concerning the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ and our being gathered to him, we ask you, brothers and sisters,

Notice the reference to the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ, followed by a reference to the gathering. Compare to Matthew 24, where we read about the great tribulation, then the coming of the Son of Man, and sending forth of His angels to gather His elect. This happens in the passage after the love of many has grown cold. Paul refers to the apostasy/departing happening first.

Instead of interpreting the passage in lines with Jesus' words, you posit a pre-trib rapture no scripture teaches, and eisegete that into the apostasy verse. Not all pre-tribbers do that. Some see this as the apostasy the way Paul uses the term elsewhere.

When ppl blur these distinct items ^ together, they miss the actual point Paul is conveying.

When people do not eisegete two future comings of Christ before the end of the age into the passage, an idea for which there is no Biblical justification, it aligns with Matthew 24.

 

[Nehemiah6]

I see no evidence for a pre-trib rapture here.

Those who do not wish to see evidence will not see it. Those who wish to see *evidence* which suits them will see it. How do you think all the cults and false Christianity justify their beliefs?

 

[presidente]

The phrase "from the faith" must be ADDED to the word itself BECAUSE that idea is not INHERENT in the word (by itself).

'Of the church' is not inherent in the word itself. Paul writes about departing from the faith in another passage. II Thessalonians 2 reminds the Thessalonians of Paul's prior teachings. We know that the departing from the faith was in the body of doctrine that Paul taught. Do you have any evidence that Paul used the term in connection with the church departing the earth?

Your assuming Paul is referring to a doctrine neither he nor others have taught in scripture. There is no reason for assuing two parousia's of Jesus. I Thessalonians 4 and I Corinthians 15 put the rapture and/or resurrection event a the parousia. II Thessalonians 2 says the wicked one will be destroyed by the brightness of the parousia.

There is no justification for assuming pre trib when reading these passages if you do not have any scripture that actually teaches it. Pre-trib is based on assuming a pre-trib scenario and reading it into passages. Where is the Biblical justification for the teaching in the first place?

 

[John146]

YES AND NO

The Christian Church as we call it today, SURE it was officially founded in Acts 2.

BUT lets not forget, there was a CHURCH before Acts 2! The Bible is clear on that.

Acts 7:38 This is he, that was in the church in the wilderness with the angel which spake to him in the mount Sina, and with our fathers: who received the lively oracles to give unto us:
Matthew 18:17 And if he shall neglect to hear them, tell it unto the church: but if he neglect to hear the church, let him be unto thee as an heathen man and a publican.

Agreed, but it was not the NT Church which is the body of Christ.

 

[Absolutely]

you said it. i look at it like this too that anyone who received that letters in the first century would think okay this is the same coming. since the language in 1 thessalonians 4:16 and matthew 24:31 is so similar they clearly think it was same event. this is proof by early church documents like didache

just too complicated. its the coming, singular parousia bodily presence like dcon always says it has to jive with one coming

they didnt have bible to flip back and forth with like we did.

The weight of scripture makes the rapture theory at the end of trib impossible.
Your position requires omition of verses.

The dead are raised prior to the gathering per 1 thes 4.

Since there is a gathering in rev 14 DURING THE TRIB, you guys have the dead raised AFTER the living

 

[garee]

Ok, from now on I’ll call them the 144,000 male virgin Jews who were servants of God that spoke truth. Does this appease everyone?

I would offer that we should search out the signified understanding hearing the tongue of God in parables. like the one in view having to do with virgin in view . Virgin a gender neutral word. As new creatures we not defiled by violating the first commandment as following after the strange woman .The voice of the deceiver. Strange woman seems to be used that way

Proverbs 2:16 To deliver thee from the strange woman, even from the stranger which flattereth with her words;

He defines the words and the usage. Hiding the spiritual understanding from those who must literalize, walk by sight after what the eyes see the temporal.

The bride of Christ in respect to the unseen heavenly Jerusalem . Is reckoned as the mother of us all .(Galatians 4) the freed woman.

She using Paul is shown doing the work of evangelism sowing the incorruptible seed by which men are born again from above. Paul is used to represent the family of God in that way

Galatians 4:19 My little children, of whom "I travail" in birth again until Christ be formed in you,

That work of suffering yoked with Christ offering the gospel in a hope Christ would be formed in the person heart is reckoned by Timothy as the chaste virgin bride the church.

2 Corinthians 11:2For I am jealous over you with godly jealousy: for I have espoused you to one husband, that I may present you as a chaste virgin to Christ.

Revelation 14:3-5 King James Version (KJV) And they sung as it were a new song before the throne, and before the four beasts, and the elders: and no man could learn that song but the hundred and forty and four thousand, which were redeemed from the earth. These are they which were not defiled with women; for they are virgins. These are they which follow the Lamb whithersoever he goeth. These were redeemed from among men, being the firstfruits unto God and to the Lamb.

The same bride pictured in Revelation 12.

I would offer. None of the metaphors in that parable Revelation 14:3-5 in respect to the signified tongue of God become the literal . Its simply a picture of the bride of Christ the church. Neither male nor female, Jew nor gentile. A new creation.

As sons of God we are not what we will be.. But are lovingly commanded to know no man after the flesh, the temporal. We therefore give to Caesar what is of mankind, and give to God the things of faith

 

[Absolutely]

This is really weird. Their rapture scripture actually describes the Day of the Lord. It is a Day of the Lord scripture

1 THES. 4 [13] But I would not have you to be ignorant, brethren, concerning them which are asleep, that ye SORROW NOT, EVEN AS OTHERS which have no hope. [14] For if we believe that Jesus died and rose again, even so them also which sleep in Jesus will God bring with him. [15] For this we say unto you by the word of the Lord, that we which are alive and remain unto the coming of the Lord shall not prevent them which are asleep. [16] For the Lord himself shall descend from heaven with a shout, with THE VOICE of the archangel, and with THE TRUMP OF GOD: and the dead in Christ shall rise first: [17] Then we which are alive and remain shall be caught up together with them IN THE CLOUDS, to meet the Lord in the air: and so shall we ever be with the Lord. [18] Wherefore comfort one another with these words.

1THES.4 – voice – clouds – trump of God – sorrow not as others -

ZEPH. 1 – voice – clouds – the trumpet – man shall cry bitterly -

ZEPH. 1 [14] The great DAY OF THE LORD is near, it is near, and hasteth greatly, even THE VOICE of the day of the Lord: the mighty MAN SHALL CRY THERE BITTERLY. [15] That day is a day of wrath, a day of trouble and distress, a day of wasteness and desolation, a day of darkness and gloominess, a DAY OF CLOUDS and thick darkness, [16] A DAY OF THE TRUMPET and alarm against the fenced cities, and against the high towers. [17] And I will bring distress upon men, that they shall walk like blind men, because they have sinned against the Lord: and their blood shall be poured out as dust, and their flesh as the dung.

No doubt about it. Both scriptures are speaking of the same event. Both scriptures speak of what happens on the Day of the Lord.

Lol.
It's like you prove our verses are wrong by leaving them out.

 

[presidente]

My you are messed up. The church is not appointed to wrath. The great tribulation is focused on Israel not the church. The church is gone into the present of the Lord being caught up into the clouds. When Christ returns to the earth He returns to Jerusalem and rescues Israel not the church. Christ rules a kingdom of 1000 years on the earth from Jerusalem.

For the cause of Christ
Roger

The typical notupttome post. Some kind of insult or derrogatory remark combined with a defense of doctrinal error and 'For the cause of Christ.'

II Thessalonians 1 shows that when Jesus returns, he will give the church rest, when he comes executing vengence on them that known not God, when He comes to be glorified in the saints.

Paul wrote to the Thessalonians that they were not appointed unto wrath but to obtain salvation through the Lord Jesus Christ. It is obvious that the saints in Revelation who overcome by the blood of the Lamb and the word of their testimony are also going to obtain salvation through our Lord Jesus Christ. They are not 'appointed unto wrath', even if wrath may be poured out upon the earth during their time. When God poured out plagues on Egypte, He preserved His people. Pre-trib invents a whole 'nother coming of Christ to resolves contradictions that are not really there. It is like Purgatory, a doctrine not taught in the Bible, but invented to solve what some consider are philosophical or theological problems.

 

[Absolutely]

ACTS 1 [9] And when he had spoken these things, while they beheld, HE WAS TAKEN UP; AND A CLOUD RECEIVED HIM out of their sight. [10] And while they looked stedfastly toward heaven as he went up, behold, two men stood by them in white apparel; [11] Which also said, Ye men of Galilee, why stand ye gazing up into heaven? this same JESUS, WHICH IS TAKEN UP FROM YOU INTO HEAVEN, SHALL SO COME IN LIKE MANNER as ye have seen him go into heaven.

Jesus was taken up in a cloud and will return in a cloud. Sure does look like Hes coming only once “in a cloud”.

REVELATION 1 [7] Behold, he cometh WITH CLOUDS; and every eye shall see him, and they also which pierced him: and all kindreds of THE EARTH SHALL WAIL because of him. Even so, Amen.

When He returns in a cloud the earthlings are gonna wail. Why wail? Are they wailing because theyve been raptured to heaven?

MARK 13 [24] But in those days, AFTER THAT TRIBULATION, the sun shall be darkened, and the moon shall not give her light, [25] And the stars of heaven shall fall, and the powers that are in heaven shall be shaken. [26] And then shall they see THE SON OF MAN COMING IN THE CLOUDS with great power and glory.

Jesus returns in the clouds AFTER the tribulation period......

ZEPHANIAH 1 [14] The great DAY OF THE LORD is near, it is near, and hasteth greatly, even the voice of the day of the LORD: the mighty man shall cry there bitterly. [15] That day is a day of wrath, a day of trouble and distress, a day of wasteness and desolation, a day of darkness and gloominess, A DAY OF CLOUDS and thick darkness,

On the “Day of the Lord”. That explanes all the wailing

1 THESSALONIANS 4 [15] For this we say unto you by the word of the Lord, that we which are alive and remain unto the coming of the Lord shall not prevent them which are asleep. [16] For THE LORD HIMSELF SHALL DESCEND FROM HEAVEN with a shout, with the voice of the archangel, and with the trump of God: and the dead in Christ shall rise first: [17] Then we which are alive and remain shall be caught up together with them IN THE CLOUDS, to meet the Lord in the air: AND SO SHALL WE EVER BE WITH THE LORD.

After we are caught up and meet Him in the clouds.......

DANIEL 7 [13] I saw in the night visions, and, behold, one like THE SON OF MAN CAME WITH THE CLOUDS of heaven, and came to the Ancient of days, and they brought him near before him. [14] And there was given him dominion, and glory, AND A KINGDOM, THAT ALL PEOPLE, NATIONS, AND LANGUAGES, SHOULD SERVE HIM: his dominion is an everlasting dominion, which shall not pass away, and HIS KINGDOM THAT WHICH SHALL NOT BE DESTROYED.

Its off to the Kingdom {the 1000 yr period of rest}.

AND SO SHALL WE EVER BE WITH THE LORD

Rev 14
Jesus returns in the clouds during the gt.

You have yet to prove any such post trib rapture.
We both believe he comes back after the gt

 

[Absolutely]

The typical notupttome post. Some kind of insult or derrogatory remark combined with a defense of doctrinal error and 'For the cause of Christ.'

II Thessalonians 1 shows that when Jesus returns, he will give the church rest, when he comes executing vengence on them that known not God, when He comes to be glorified in the saints.

Paul wrote to the Thessalonians that they were not appointed unto wrath but to obtain salvation through the Lord Jesus Christ. It is obvious that the saints in Revelation who overcome by the blood of the Lamb and the word of their testimony are also going to obtain salvation through our Lord Jesus Christ. They are not 'appointed unto wrath', even if wrath may be poured out upon the earth during their time. When God poured out plagues on Egypte, He preserved His people. Pre-trib invents a whole 'nother coming of Christ to resolves contradictions that are not really there. It is like Purgatory, a doctrine not taught in the Bible, but invented to solve what some consider are philosophical or theological problems.

Uh,no,we have verses making your deal impossible.

So,your beating a dead horse.
Postrib rapture is impossible

 

[Absolutely]

Look at the only locations they are identified with.....and again I say...there is NO verse in context that states they will WITNESS during the Great Trib.........

Lol
We only KNOW some of what they did.

You are trying to prove an unknown.

At best we can only say "it doesn't specifically say they evangelised"

 

[presidente]

Uh,no,we have verses making your deal impossible.

So,your beating a dead horse.
Postrib rapture is impossible

I haven't followed your posts throughout this lengthy thread, so I am not sure what you have in mind. Please tell me it is not the 'wrath' line of reasoning.

Can you show where the Bible teaches there are two second coming events? Can you show me a passage that shows the rapture occuring before the great tribulation?

My approach is to interpret apocalyptic literature through the lens of more direct didatic teaching. For example, I read Matthew 24 and Paul's epistles to the Thessalonians, and interpret Revelation in light of that.

 

[Hevosmies]

I haven't followed your posts throughout this lengthy thread, so I am not sure what you have in mind. Please tell me it is not the 'wrath' line of reasoning.

Can you show where the Bible teaches there are two second coming events? Can you show me a passage that shows the rapture occuring before the great tribulation?

My approach is to interpret apocalyptic literature through the lens of more direct didatic teaching. For example, I read Matthew 24 and Paul's epistles to the Thessalonians, and interpret Revelation in light of that.

That would help! Anyone who is able to prove TWO comings, one FOR the Church and another one WITH the Church later on would got a case going.

UNFORTUNATELY, we know that folks in church history NEVER anticipated two comings nor did they have the dispie understanding of separating Jesus' words from Paul's or any of this we got goin today!
ALL the creeds and commentaries from the first 3 centuries of the Church are waiting for one coming. THATS THE IDEA you get from just reading the Bible without anyone planting an idea in you too!

 

[TheDivineWatermark]

In Matthew 24, Jesus describes how the love of many will wax cold before writing futher about the Great Tribulation.

^ That ("the GREAT tribulation") is speaking SOLELY of "the second HALF [of the trib years]".

So what *I* have been talking about is, what is to take place "before" the ENTIRE [set of] trib years; that is, before it can even START (meaning, BEFORE "SEAL #1 / the INITIAL "birth PANG [SINGULAR; 1Th5:2-3 (its ARRIVAL), Matt24:4/Mk13:5 "G5100 - tis - 'A CERTAIN ONE'" (a CERTAIN ONE bringing DECEPTION; aka the "whose COMING/ARRIVAL/PRESENCE/parousia" 2Th2:9a[/Dan9:27a(26) "FOR ONE WEEK [7-yrs!]"] OF the man of sin "IN HIS TIME" [the "IN THE NIGHT" time period; parallel to the "IN QUICKNESS [NOUN]" time period that Rev1:1/22:6(7:3)/1:19c/4:1+--> talks about, which I believe also corresponds to the other references to the "IN QUICKNESS [NOUN]" phrasings found in both Lk18:8[Lk17-end] "AVENGE IN QUICKNESS [NOUN]" (Jesus is not doing THAT yet--but instead, presently (for "this PRESENT age [singular]") refers to "the PATIENCE/the word of His PATIENCE/PATIENT WAITING..." in a number of passages; and in Romans 16:20 (said to "the Church which is His body") "shall bruise satan UNDER *YOUR* FEET IN QUICKNESS [NOUN]" (this awaits the 1Cor6:3[14] [change-of-location] thing!! not PRESENTLY happening!)


I agree with the poster saying that "the church in the wilderness" (Acts 7) is not the same thing as "the Church WHICH IS HIS BODY" (Eph1:20-23 WHEN!), to whom "the Rapture" SOLELY pertains (NOT to all other saints of all OTHER time periods--SOLELY "the Church WHICH IS HIS BODY" i.e those saved in/during "this present age [singular]").

So what I am talking about is not what must take place "before the GREAT trib" (the things you pointed out which take place IN THE FIRST HALF of those "7 yrs"... same time as the "SEALS" and 5 of the "7 [judgment] Trumpets"), but what must take place BEFORE even the FIRST SEAL/INITIAL "birth PANG [SINGULAR; 1Th5:2-3!!! the ARRIVAL of "the DOTL" TIME PERIOD (not DEFINED as "a singular 24-hr day"!)]

 

[TheDivineWatermark]

2Th2:3 - "that day ^ will NOT be present if not shall have come THE DEPARTURE *FIRST*…" (ONE THING named as being *FIRST* b/f the DOTL can BE PRESENT to unfold upon the earth with its "man of sin" and ALL he is slated to DO over the course of those 7-yrs)


Liddell and Scott (1895) - "apostasia - LATER FORM FOR apostasis"


"apo stasis" - "a standing away from [a previous standing]" or, DEPARTURE... but here in our verse it is "THE Departure" (the one Paul had JUST MENTIONED in v.1!)

[and recall what I'd put about the "stasin/stasis" verse ]

 

[bluto]

2Th2:3 - "that day ^ will NOT be present if not shall have come THE DEPARTURE *FIRST*…" (ONE THING named as being *FIRST* b/f the DOTL can BE PRESENT to unfold upon the earth with its "man of sin" and ALL he is slated to DO over the course of those 7-yrs)


Liddell and Scott (1895) - "apostasia - LATER FORM FOR apostasis"


"apo stasis" - "a standing away from [a previous standing]" or, DEPARTURE... but here in our verse it is "THE Departure" (the one Paul had JUST MENTIONED in v.1!)

[and recall what I'd put about the "stasin/stasis" verse ]

You know I remember "DECADES" ago when I was taught the pretrib rapture and believed it that the rapture was "dubed" the secret rapture. I also remember that according to this secret rapture that a Christian may be a pilot flying a plane and he is immediately raptured leaving some of the passengers who are not Christian crashing and dying.

The same can be said of a person driving his car who is a Christian, he is instantly raptured and the others are killed in an accident. There are literally millions of other scenarios of this sort. My point is the fact that this does not make sense. Can you please tell me where this idea is taught in the Bible?

From what I know you guys base the pretibe rapture mainly on 1 Corinthains 15:51-52, 1 Thessalonians 4:16-17 along with the famous "wrath" verse of 1 Thessalonians 5:9. My point is the fact that not one person here (at least not on your side or on my side for that matter) has brought up this issue of pilots or drivers of cars disappearing to eat at the marriage supper of the Lamb and people are dying all over the landscape. Does this really make sense to you?

IN GOD THE SON,
bluto

 

[TheDivineWatermark]

disappearing to eat at the marriage supper of the Lamb and people are dying all over the landscape.

You were "taught" poorly [/improperly] if you were taught that what takes place upon "our Rapture" [IN THE AIR] is "the marriage FEAST/SUPPER of the Lamb" (which is "the promised and prophesied EARTHLY Millennial Kingdom, which doesn't commence until He "RETURNS [TO THE EARTH]"--not at "our Rapture" time-slot!)

The marriage FEAST/SUPPER is NOT the purpose of "our Rapture," and will not be taking place until we "RETURN" (WITH Him) to the earth, WHERE "the wedding FEAST/SUPPER" is located (being the "inauguration" [so to speak] of the MK age), and where those still-on-the-earth (never having left the earth) [and those who] will have come to faith WITHIN/DURING the trib yrs (FOLLOWING "our Rapture"/"THE Departure") will thereafter (after His RETURN, in Rev19) ENTER the MK in mortal bodies (those who haven't DIED in the trib, of course; those who have DIED in the trib will be "resurrected" at the END of the trib, same time as the OT saints, per Dan12:13, etc)... so those who have survived THROUGH the trib (without dying [so they are "still-living" at His "RETURN" to the earth]) are passages such as Dan12:12 ("BLESSED is he that waiteth and cometh to the 1335 days"), and Lk12:36-37,38,40,42-44 and context ("when he will RETURN FROM the wedding"... THEN the meal!), and about TEN OTHER "BLESSED" passages I've listed before (i.e. their ENTRANCE into the earthly MK age), and Matthew 25:31-34/Matt13:24,30,39,40,49-50, and all of Matt24-25 (this is what LEADS UP TO that), and ALL "Son of man COMETH/COMING/SHALL COME" passages (and ALL of "the kingdom OF THE heavenS" passages [i.e. the EARTHLY MK]), and SO MANY MORE! Basically, everything UP TO and INCLUDING Jesus' Olivet Discourse is covering the Subject of His "RETURN" to the earth, FOR the promised and prophesied EARTHLY Millennial Kingdom.

Additionally, I'm not one that believes that "planes will fall out of the sky" [BECAUSE of] when our [pre-trib] Rapture takes place, for example.