And it’s also fascinating to me that the definition of an antichrist is one who says that Jesus Christ hasn’t come in the flesh - that’s what unsaved Jews believe.
Yeah, there's a distinction between...
--
1 John 4:2-3's "that Jesus Christ in flesh
having come [
perfect participle]... that Jesus Christ
having come [
perfect participle] in flesh"
[and]
--
2 John 1:7's "who confess not Jesus Christ
coming in flesh [
present participle]" ['this is
the deceiver and
the antichrist']
____________
On the subject of some of your other points...
let me ask you this. Do you believe the following two passages are speaking of identical things
in the bold? [/by the bold (Matt10:27 and Lk12:3 identical things)?]
Matthew 10:25-27 -
25 It is enough for the disciple that he be as his master, and the servant as his lord. If they have called the master of the house Beelzebub, how much more shall they call them of his household?
26 Fear them not therefore:
for there is nothing covered, that shall not be revealed; and hid, that shall not be known.
27 What I tell you in darkness, that speak ye in light: and what ye hear in the ear, that preach ye upon the housetops.
[and]
Luke 12:1-3 -
12:1 In the mean time, when there were gathered together an innumerable multitude of people, insomuch that they trode one upon another, he began to say unto his disciples first of all, Beware ye of the leaven of the Pharisees, which is hypocrisy.
2
For there is nothing covered, that shall not be revealed; neither hid, that shall not be known.
3 Therefore whatsoever ye have spoken in darkness shall be heard in the light; and that which ye have spoken in the ear in closets shall be proclaimed upon the housetops.
Are these (the bolded) speaking of identical things?