Some truth about speaking in tongues, the Holy Ghost, spiritual gifts and 1 Corinthians 14
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BTW, I'm still asking God the question of why it isn't stated more clearly throughout the bible. And I'm willing to seek and wait on God until he reveals it clearly.
However, if you remember that "the bible" only contains writings that were agreeable to the entire group(s) of men that were doing the selecting, it's not hard to fathom that writings addressing 'disagreeable' topics would have been excluded. I'm actually amazed in some ways that 1 Corinthians 14 was even allowed to be included. I'm guessing it's because it's written in a way that can be viewed as being sufficiently non-supportive of tongues by way of the contrast with the purpose of prophesying.
Further, it is also spoken in Romans 8 which clearly states that "the spirit ITSELF beareth witness" (meaning it provides observable evidence) Romans 8: 16. And that the Spirit prays things that we know not (therefore cannot be spoken in our understanding) Rom 8:26. And that only God (He that searches the hearts) knows what is being said (Rom. 8: 27). And that what is being prayed edifies us (helpeth our infirmities- Rom 8:26. And that you are always praying well when praying in the spirit(tongues) Rom 8:27 And that if you don't have it, you are none of his Romans 8: 9.
That (of course) is in perfect agreement with the 1 Corinthians statements about speaking in tongues. But again, it was spread out enough throughout the chapter that the selectors probably assumed people wouldn't be able to see it or realize it.
THAT is a second accounting, in the epistles, of the NEED for the same Holy Ghost that was being poured out in all the accounts in the book of Acts (and 1 Cor. 14) for those willing to receive it.
Love in Jesus,
Kelby
However, if you remember that "the bible" only contains writings that were agreeable to the entire group(s) of men that were doing the selecting, it's not hard to fathom that writings addressing 'disagreeable' topics would have been excluded. I'm actually amazed in some ways that 1 Corinthians 14 was even allowed to be included. I'm guessing it's because it's written in a way that can be viewed as being sufficiently non-supportive of tongues by way of the contrast with the purpose of prophesying.
Further, it is also spoken in Romans 8 which clearly states that "the spirit ITSELF beareth witness" (meaning it provides observable evidence) Romans 8: 16. And that the Spirit prays things that we know not (therefore cannot be spoken in our understanding) Rom 8:26. And that only God (He that searches the hearts) knows what is being said (Rom. 8: 27). And that what is being prayed edifies us (helpeth our infirmities- Rom 8:26. And that you are always praying well when praying in the spirit(tongues) Rom 8:27 And that if you don't have it, you are none of his Romans 8: 9.
That (of course) is in perfect agreement with the 1 Corinthians statements about speaking in tongues. But again, it was spread out enough throughout the chapter that the selectors probably assumed people wouldn't be able to see it or realize it.
THAT is a second accounting, in the epistles, of the NEED for the same Holy Ghost that was being poured out in all the accounts in the book of Acts (and 1 Cor. 14) for those willing to receive it.
Love in Jesus,
Kelby
That is a far assessment however, the very action and end results after applying what one sees in the Word of God will produce praiseworthy or not. It will edify, comfort, and exhort. it will bring Glory to God and the loss will be saved. That is right. if it does not do that then it is wrong.
again why was not the term Trinity taught? The Trinity is not even taught in the Bible is seen in the context of scriptures. This very important truth was taught formalized in the fourth century. Does that make it not true? you said you believe the founding fathers and Reformers are authoritative just as the word of God is. I do not.
Why not say it this way: "Because we have the proof of the spirit, according to what the word of God says." ?
In all biblically recorded outpourings of the Holy Ghost, God provided PROOF that the people actually received the Holy Ghost. You made a mistake when you settled for something other than what is described in all the biblical outpourings. Those recorded outpourings are EXAMPLES, not exceptions.
Love in Jesus,
Kelby
I did not say that I see anyone ore anything equal as the scripture.
The scripture is alone autorative and the measure!
Trinity you find through the whole scripture, right.
The teaching, that speaking in tongues is the proof that someone is fiĺled ore baptised with the Holy Spirit you cant find. Even not as theme discussed in the early churchhistory.
I said we have to proof/test the spirit, as the scripture said. Not everybody who claimes to has the spirit of God has him realy. It is possible to follow a spirit of lie.
And we know from our Lord that not all who doing miracles in his name and call him Lord, are his children.
And we also know that the deceiving from Satan is in this way, that he comes as angel of the light.
What means it seems right what he is telling.
And again, this teaching I find startet in 1900. So it is not biblical. Even it sounds so.
How wrong can you continue to be ?
11 And what father is there among you, who, if his son asks for a slice of bread, will offer him a stone? or if he asks for a fish, will instead of a fish offer him a snake?
12 or if he asks for an egg, will offer him a scorpion?
13 If you then, with all your human frailty, know how to give your children gifts that are good for them, how much more certainly will your Father who is in Heaven give the Holy Spirit to those who ask Him!"
Luke 11:
And it is also not discussed ore taught in Acts to other believers.
Nowhere i find the Statement: And all who receiving ore filled with the Holy Spirit will speak in tongues as proof for that.
But i find in 1. Cor. 12,30 Pauls statement that not all will receive the Gift of speaking in tongues.
7
7seasrekeyed
Guest
you better go back to the thread where you and I were having a dialog about this very topic and you said you did not hold the teaching of the founding father and reformers as authoritative than you corrected yourself and said you did. Get it, right guy.
I've been wondering how wrong you can be but it takes me to a truth that I cannot reveal on the forums. In Luke 11 verse 13 we have the promise made to every believer. Jesus is going to give us the gift of the Holy Spirit. We receive the Holy Spirit when we receive Christ as Savior. We did not seek Christ but Christ sought us. We could not come to Christ except the Father draw us to Christ. We could not receive Christ except the Holy Spirit convict us of sin, righteousness, and the judgment to come.stay tuned
bound to find out
God is sovereign and it is not by the will of man that we are saved but by the determinate will of God.
For the cause of Christ
Roger
Yes, i correcet it in my post 857. And there i statet clear that the only authority I see in the word of God and that no man on the history had 100 % the right teaching.
But this is finaly not the point.
We are moving in a circle. Solong you cant show me from the scripture that your teaching was taught to other believers. Ore do you expect that i should follow man made doctrine?
there you go the Baptism of the Holy Spirit when it happens as shown in the Word of God all spoke in tongues or prophesied. Don't need any more than the word of God to show that.
you first did then you corrected it so you can't use that they did not teach the doctrine of initial evidence because they are not authoritative. The Context of Initial evidence is in the Book of Acts you agree or don't. Interjecting the church fathers and reformers in moot. If you did not hold them as authoritative you should have not used them LOL.