No are you? Did you study to see what the sign represents and confirms as proper exegesis ?
In the law it is written, With men of other tongues and other lips will I speak unto "this people"; and yet for all that will "they not hear me", saith the Lord.Wherefore tongues are for a sign, not to them that believe, but to "them" that believe not: but prophesying serveth not for them that believe not, but for them which believe.1 Corinthians 14:21-22
Garee, I've asked you this before several times, and you have not given a straight answer: how does your view make sense in light of the events of Acts 10, where Cornelius and the others spoke in tongues by the Holy Spirit, and there were no unbelieving Jews present?
Since you have been unable or unwilling to provide a straight answer, I'll provide one: it doesn't. So you need to reconsider whether your view and modify it so that it is consistent with all Scripture.