Did Jesus?
The answer is in John 8:46
Can any of you prove me guilty of sin?
The yardstick for holiness in Jesus' day was the law of Moses. He was not guilty of any sin because He kept the Law perfectly.
Did Jesus?
No,the question is did the HOLY SPIRIT write it,no matter my opinion of it.
See,that is the ROOT of our differences.
You got to go back,back,back ......to the root.
The root is your/my starting place.
"......all scripture.......inspired......"
If it is some abstract,like you say,then we can treat it with that attitude.
If it is word for word from heaven,to me, it is priceless and precious.
The church age started at JTB and Jesus's baptism.Example:
OT - eye for an eye (Law)
Gospels - turn the other cheek (kingdom of heaven, Millennium)
Paul's letters - if it's possible live at peace, sometimes it's not possible, self defense (Church Age)
All 66 books written TO ME and so much so,it is as like if i was the only one left on the planet it would be 100% to me only.All Scripture is given by inspiration of God, red and black letters.
Now, answer my question please. Is that passage written TO you or FOR you?
The church age started at JTB and Jesus's baptism.
(The equivalent of moses coming down from the mountain)
The new covenant started at the Jordan.
The new covenant sealed and ratified by innocent blood,the cross.
Like i said before,without UNDERSTANDING of the priesthood,you positively can not understand the nt.
"To the 7 churches....."
All 66 books written TO ME and so much so,it is as like if i was the only one left on the planet it would be 100% to me only.
The bible says the law and the prophets were until John.Study to shew thyself approved unto God....the NT did not begin until the death of the testator. Trust the Scriptures over your bible study group.
Hebrews 9
15 And for this cause he is the mediator of the new testament, that by means of death, for the redemption of the transgressions that were under the first testament, they which are called might receive the promise of eternal inheritance.
16 For where a testament is, there must also of necessity be the death of the testator.
17 For a testament is of force after men are dead: otherwise it is of no strength at all while the testator liveth.
The NT is not in force while Christ was alive. His death was necessary for the NT to be in force. Do you see that? Verse 16?
Word games.Then the direction God has given in Leviticus you need to apply to be in fellowship with the Lord. Literally, you need to make the appropriate sacrifices whenever you transgress the Law.
99.9% of believers understand that it is written FOR us to learn what God was doing with Israel under the law, and not TO us as direction we are literally to follow.
TO us = we are to literally follow to be in right fellowship with the Lord. aka doctrine
FOR us = the directions given by God are TO someone else in a different time period under different circumstances.
Uh,go back and read it.To be completely fair, the word "churchES" is not entirely identical [in designation] with that of the phrase "the Church which is His body".
During the future tribulation period, there will still be "churchES" present on the earth, whereas "the Church which is His body" will not be present there.
Paul preached Jesus 1st the testimony as to what he did 2nd.Okay, but your point is not addressing mine, its a totally different argument.
I am saying, in John 3:16 when John wrote "believe in him", John is most likely referring to "believing in Jesus as the Son of God". I am trying to argue why that is the correct interpretation from the context of what John said later on to the readers, on why he wrote the Gospel of John.
He did not meant. as Paul did, "believe in Jesus's death, burial and resurrection". We are reading that because we had the benefit of growing up with Paul's letters, so we read that meaning into John 3:16.
Are you disagreeing with that claim?
In Jesus' day the law was supreceeded.The answer is in John 8:46
Can any of you prove me guilty of sin?
The yardstick for holiness in Jesus' day was the law of Moses. He was not guilty of any sin because He kept the Law perfectly.
The over examination of the "who is it to" is a marvelous way out of the word being made alive for the born again saint. Under the "who is it to" wild card I am now erased from accountability to the words and commands of the Holy Spirit. IOW a sure fire formula to miss out on truth which is the entire word,not sectional favorites as my base.
In Jesus' day the law was supreceeded.
" you have heard it is written...."
"But i say...."
" unless your righteousness exceeds the righteousness of the Pharisee...."
Then we see him breaking the sabboth and laws of washing.
And you would both be wrong.
It says in the bible
" the law and the prophets were until John"
Even without that verse it is a no brainer that the gospels are NOT part of the ot.
The reason lies at Jesus's baptism.
That is another study, ( the priesthood).
You can not understand the gospels or any of the nt w/o the priesthood.
In Jesus' day the law was supreceeded.
" you have heard it is written...."
"But i say...."
" unless your righteousness exceeds the righteousness of the Pharisee...."
Then we see him breaking the sabboth and laws of washing.