Things to Consider Before Attempting to Correct the King James Bible

[MattforJesus]

I am not going to knock the newer translations, for I surely do not know much about them.

But I read through the KJV, and it is the same theme all the way through, and what the Old Testament says the New Testament declares, so I do not see a problem with it.

For what would be wrong with the KJV in the way of not being translated correctly that people can point out.

The KJV states the creation, Adam and Eve sinning, the flood, the tower of Babel and God confounded their language, the call of Abraham, and Isaac, and Jacob, Israel, the Jews in Egypt and God delivered them, the Jews entering Israel, king Saul, king David, king Solomon, Israel being rebellious, and her enemies going against her, but God always restores them, and will in the future, the prophets sent to turn Israel to the truth, John the Baptist to prepare the way for Jesus, and Jesus the Savior of the world who is God manifest in the flesh, believing in the death, burial, and resurrection of Jesus, receiving the Holy Spirit to act Christlike, establishing Israel as a nation again and continuing to bring all the Jews out of the nations and bring them to Israel which when the Gentile nations come together and say Peace and safety, and the man of sin establishes peace in the Middle East they will cause all the Jews to go to Israel, deception at the end time now, which is the new age movement that will happen in the latter times that will lead all people to the beast kingdom who do not love God where they will rebel against God, and God turning the nation of Israel to the truth that Jesus is their Messiah, the beast persecuting the saints, the saints being resurrected, the man of sin, beast, New Age Christ and the world attacking Jerusalem, Israel, and Jesus coming back with the saints and defeating the world and saving Israel, and Jesus and the saints ruling over one sixth of the world for 1000 years that God spared at the battle of Armageddon, then the saints being in the New Jerusalem for all eternity, which is a place where sin has never been and sin will never be.

Among things in between but wanted to hit the basics, but what can be out of place that they would say the KJV may have error and not translated correctly in some areas.

For it is the same theme all the way through, and nothing seems to be out of place, and it harmonizes.

If the KJV claims the God of Israel, a personal God, and Jesus as Lord and Savior, and receive the Holy Spirit and act Christlike, everything else should fall in to place, as well with the newer translations, for they are not afraid of the truth to exalt God, and Jesus, and abstain from sin by the Spirit.

1Ti 4:1 Now the Spirit speaketh expressly, that in the latter times some shall depart from the faith, giving heed to seducing spirits, and doctrines of devils;
1Ti 4:2 Speaking lies in hypocrisy; having their conscience seared with a hot iron;
1Ti 4:3 Forbidding to marry, and commanding to abstain from meats, which God hath created to be received with thanksgiving of them which believe and know the truth.
1Ti 4:4 For every creature of God is good, and nothing to be refused, if it be received with thanksgiving:
1Ti 4:5 For it is sanctified by the word of God and prayer.

The new age movement is a good example of people that have an alternate viewpoint of reality, and interpreted the Bible according to the occult, evolution, and people can still evolve, and Jesus is not Lord and Savior, but a good teacher in the evolutionary process and love, and an ascended master, and avatar, and honor the God of forces, or the power of nature as their higher power, and the New Age Christ is the final teacher in the evolutionary process, and will cause all people that follow him to evolve to be greater and spiritual, and the Christ conscience will come upon them, and they will become an ascended master, and avatar.

That is a good example of people that does not interpret the Bible correctly, but hold a different viewpoint of reality, and interpret the scriptures that way, and they do it on purpose, so they will be off on many things of the Bible as they look at the Bible according to the occult, and evolution, and will interpret some things to fit their beliefs.

Which a good example of that is when the Bible says that Lucifer fell, which is in to sin and disgrace, and shall be punished because of it, but Alice Bailey the biggest prophet of the new age movement says that Lucifer did not fall in to sin and disgrace, but descended from Venus years ago, thus the fall, and brought the principle of mind to the then animal-man, looking at it as a sacrifice from him, and will cause people to evolve to be spiritual in the future.

That is a good example of people interpreting the Bible that is incorrect, not acknowledging the God of Israel, not acknowledging Jesus as Lord and Savior, and not acknowledging acting Christlike in goodness as Jesus taught it, so they will misinterpret many things of the Bible.

I do not believe there is a problem with the KJV, and I would not knock the newer translations, for everyone says they like the newer versions claim the God of Israel, a personal God, Jesus is Lord and Savior, and act Christlike by the Spirit.

For I believe if the Bible is translated incorrectly it is done on purpose with people that hold a different viewpoint, and interpret scriptures that way, which Churches like Christian Science, and Scientology, is a good example.

 

[Angela53510]

You don't need to. It was a joke! Seriously...

Good for you. Your grandson lived in China, and you know how to use Google. I'm proud of you. Too bad you can't recognize a joke.

I apologize for jumping on you, on one of your first posts. But honestly and truly, your other post is the kind of thing people really do post on here. And yes, my Chinese is limited to my grandson and the internet. But, I am much better at western languages, and near eastern.

Welcome to the forum, but please watch the lip!





Oh, just joking!

 

[KJV1611]

(Acts 12:4 KJV) And when he had apprehended him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after Easter Passover to bring him forth to the people.

I just corrected it right ^^^ there. View attachment 191802

Now that’s funny.... you have no idea what’s going on with that verse but you say it’s wrong. 🤪

 

[Locutus]

Now that’s funny.... you have no idea what’s going on with that verse but you say it’s wrong.

Come on 16 - even you have to admit they screwed up.

(Acts 12:3 KJV) And because he saw it pleased the Jews, he proceeded further to take Peter also. (Then were the days of unleavened bread.)

How the "hell" do the "days of unleavened bread" lead into Easter?

 

[7seasrekeyed]

Idol? Come on. I exalt the word of God. It's God's words given to us so we may know Him. You call that an idol? Idolatry is exalting one's education to think they can be the final authority on God's word.

oh dear

I hope I am not the only one who sees this dark tunnel with no opening

this is called an argumentum ad verecundiam aka an appeal to authority.

John exalts the word of God ...it is GOD's word!! real idolatry is exalting an education to create the assumption of authority on GOD's word

by gum I think I spot a red herring in that part

weak weak response here John. please go back and think it through and when you have something of substance, please show it to us

note: it is difficult to actually respond to a post when the purpose of the post is to shut up any response to said post because of the authority we are not supposed to question and the slightly hidden red herring that is, nonetheless, still swimming around in there

 

[7seasrekeyed]

Breadcrumbs? We're talking about God's word. Do we have the truth, the whole truth and nothing but the truth? Do we have a bible we can trust every word to be true? Do you have a faithful witness?

A faithful witness will not lie: but a false witness will utter lies.

same appeal to authority here but also verging on the dramatic

can I get a witness?

 

[Locutus]

same appeal to authority here but also verging on the dramatic

can I get a witness?

I'll have to give an "amen" to the big bad wolf.

But against my better judgment, and seeing as Angela liked this post.

What can yer doo - doh.

 

[Endoscopy]

I think that anybody who thinks man is capable of translating the word of God without inspiration has no clue as to what the Bible even is. It really sickens me to see the foolish comments on these threads.

KJV was a good translation 400 years ago. The problem is the changes in English since then!!

 

[JaumeJ]

I think that anybody who thinks man is capable of translating the word of God without inspiration has no clue as to what the Bible even is. It really sickens me to see the foolish comments on these threads.

I believe your reference here is people who just pick up dany version of the Word and decide to edit it. That is almost a pompous thught.

Now when people get together, scholars, religious men, etc. I would think in translated it, they pray, and of c course, are trained in linguistics.

So yes, people who pick up the Bible using strong's and other lexicons etc and believe they have resolved all are probably fooling only themselves and others perhaps but temporarily.

It is true as someone alreayd posted here, the best lexicon is the KJV itself.

 

[tanakh]

I don't exactly know when we stated having modern translations. Growing up I only knew the KJV and the RSV. It was only in the late
60's/early 70's that I became aware that others existed. I think the RSV was produced in the 1940s but as far as I know it was mainly used in Schools. The point is whether the KJV was accurate or not it was ''the Bible'' as far as most people were concerned here in the UK unless you were a Catholic then you read from the Douay translation which in some ways used old English similar to the KJV.

 

[John146]

I just don't get where this cult came from. No, I do! Peter Ruckman and Gail Riplinger and their cult.

Ah, but I do know who's behind the new corrupt versions...

 

[preacher4truth]

KJV was a good translation 400 years ago. The problem is the changes in English since then!!

I trow not!*

*Disclaimer: I am not disagreeing with Endoscopy. I am not poking fun at him. Mine was a weak attempt at humor. Endcoscopy please do not hit me back with a cut and paste or a request to "refutest thou!!!!" Thankest thou.

 

[Angela53510]

Ah, but I do know who's behind the new corrupt versions...

Corruption is something that usually takes a long time. So the 7 very recent manuscripts the KJV translators used, was 1500 years since Christ. The corruption in those manuscripts was extensive. The Byzantine copies of the Bible don't even exist before the 4th century, meaning that there is no continuous lineage back to the autographs.

400 years is a LONG break, and right there puts the Byzantine manuscripts at a huge disadvantage! And just because the Greek scribes copied and copied, doesn't mean those are superior, because of the sheer weight of numbers. Those manuscripts have major errors, mistakes which were accumulated and increased, so by the late 1500s, the Byzantine manuscripts the KJV committee were extremely corrupt!

So how can you have a "pure" and perfect translation, when the manuscripts are so corrupted? Plus, the text is from 400 years ago. And so much tinkering and changes! Not that they were bad corrections. Just that if the 1611 version was so "inspired" why were there so many changes? And more than just updating the spelling. It was corrupt. And the KJV is also corrupt. Although not affecting doctrine.

I will take modern scholars, 6000 Greek manuscripts going back to the second century AD, better Greek and Hebrew tools for the OT, 400 more years of understanding Greek and Hebrew-the languages themselves.

I just don't understand how anyone thinks God reached down from heaven and "inspired" a single translation, in a single language, and every other Bible translation since then, is not!

God inspired the original writers of the Bible. But he used them as people, with strengths and weaknesses.

God did not inspire translators in the 16th century. Or He did, but he also inspired every other version.

Perhaps a better way of saying it, was that God was leading and guiding these scholars as they used their knowledge and training to bring about good translations for people to know the Word. And that includes modern versions. KJV has been a valued and loved translation in the English speaking world. But because all the issues raised in this and other threads, a better choice is to read a modern version, with dynamic equivalence leaning towards functional. God can speak through a modern version in our heart language, far better than a Bible in a dead language, (or at least in a confusing and archaic)!

 

[KJV1611]

Come on 16 - even you have to admit they screwed up.

(Acts 12:3 KJV) And because he saw it pleased the Jews, he proceeded further to take Peter also. (Then were the days of unleavened bread.)

How the "hell" do the "days of unleavened bread" lead into Easter?

How the hell does the days of unleavend bread lead up to Easter? Because EASTER is the fulfillment of Passover... Christians don't celebrate Passover, we celebrate Easter - the resurrection of Christ. The resurrection of Christ is the fulfillment of Passover and you can accept the God given name of the fulfillment given in the KJV or you can believe the lies of the devil and believe Easter is a Pagan holiday..... Do your research. One guy a long time ago believed Easter was related to Ishtar and he was wrong. Easter comes from the German Oester which means morning sun or something like that.

I don’t even want to debate it so I’ll just say why God did it and be done with it.

That mention of pashca in Acts is the one and only place in the Bible where Passover is mentioned after it had been fulfilled.

No offence to you Locutus, you’re one of my favorites here, but I’m just telling it like is. The KJV translators weren’t idiots, they knew EXACTLY what they were doing when they used the word Easter in that verse..., that’s called INSPIRATION. Something or Someone caused the KJV translators to translate that word the way they did.

The KJV translators knew they were departing from the Greek in that verse and the only question is what inspired them to do so - God or the devil and that’s something the reader can decide for themselves.[/QUOTE]

 

[Locoponydirtman]

Come on 16 - even you have to admit they screwed up.

(Acts 12:3 KJV) And because he saw it pleased the Jews, he proceeded further to take Peter also. (Then were the days of unleavened bread.)

How the "hell" do the "days of unleavened bread" lead into Easter?

Right and why would the Roman, lunar first day of spring fertity orgy matter to the Jews?

 

[Sipsey]

Corruption is something that usually takes a long time. So the 7 very recent manuscripts the KJV translators used, was 1500 years since Christ. The corruption in those manuscripts was extensive. The Byzantine copies of the Bible don't even exist before the 4th century, meaning that there is no continuous lineage back to the autographs.

400 years is a LONG break, and right there puts the Byzantine manuscripts at a huge disadvantage! And just because the Greek scribes copied and copied, doesn't mean those are superior, because of the sheer weight of numbers. Those manuscripts have major errors, mistakes which were accumulated and increased, so by the late 1500s, the Byzantine manuscripts the KJV committee were extremely corrupt!

So how can you have a "pure" and perfect translation, when the manuscripts are so corrupted? Plus, the text is from 400 years ago. And so much tinkering and changes! Not that they were bad corrections. Just that if the 1611 version was so "inspired" why were there so many changes? And more than just updating the spelling. It was corrupt. And the KJV is also corrupt. Although not affecting doctrine.

I will take modern scholars, 6000 Greek manuscripts going back to the second century AD, better Greek and Hebrew tools for the OT, 400 more years of understanding Greek and Hebrew-the languages themselves.

I just don't understand how anyone thinks God reached down from heaven and "inspired" a single translation, in a single language, and every other Bible translation since then, is not!

God inspired the original writers of the Bible. But he used them as people, with strengths and weaknesses.

God did not inspire translators in the 16th century. Or He did, but he also inspired every other version.

Perhaps a better way of saying it, was that God was leading and guiding these scholars as they used their knowledge and training to bring about good translations for people to know the Word. And that includes modern versions. KJV has been a valued and loved translation in the English speaking world. But because all the issues raised in this and other threads, a better choice is to read a modern version, with dynamic equivalence leaning towards functional. God can speak through a modern version in our heart language, far better than a Bible in a dead language, (or at least in a confusing and archaic)!

I have read, “an entire NT, minus about 11 verses,” can be constructed from quotes starting in letters exchanged between Polycarp and Iraneus and several more disciples within a relatively short span, all before the council of Nicaea. Anyone else aware or can validate this assertion? I have a book asserting this somewhere.

 

[JaumeJ]

Come on 16 - even you have to admit they screwed up.

(Acts 12:3 KJV) And because he saw it pleased the Jews, he proceeded further to take Peter also. (Then were the days of unleavened bread.)

How the "hell" do the "days of unleavened bread" lead into Easter?

The last supper was a seder, that is Passover……..during Passover there is no leavening in the houeholds of Hebrew believers.

Of course it led tow what has been renamed Easter since the RCC put that labe on Passover and changed the calendar...…..etc. These events figure fully in your how the hell question.

 

[Locoponydirtman]

How the hell does the days of unleavend bread lead up to Easter? Because EASTER is the fulfillment of Passover... Christians don't celebrate Passover, we celebrate Easter - the resurrection of Christ. The resurrection of Christ is the fulfillment of Passover and you can accept the God given name of the fulfillment given in the KJV or you can believe the lies of the devil and believe Easter is a Pagan holiday..... Do your research. One guy a long time ago believed Easter was related to Ishtar and he was wrong. Easter comes from the German Oester which means morning sun or something like that.

I don’t even want to debate it so I’ll just say why God did it and be done with it.

That mention of pashca in Acts is the one and only place in the Bible where Passover is mentioned after it had been fulfilled.

No offence to you Locutus, you’re one of my favorites here, but I’m just telling it like is. The KJV translators weren’t idiots, they knew EXACTLY what they were doing when they used the word Easter in that verse..., that’s called INSPIRATION. Something or Someone caused the KJV translators to translate that word the way they did.

The KJV translators knew they were departing from the Greek in that verse and the only question is what inspired them to do so - God or the devil and that’s something the reader can decide for themselves.

[/QUOTE]
Why would Herod wait until after a holiday that had not been invented yet. The book of acts is a historical narrative. No one would be celebrating the not yet established Catholic holiday of Easter. The only historical holidays that would be relevant to that time and place would be feast of unleavened bread which followed Passover night which was called in short Passover week. And the Roman celebration worship if Ishtar which is done on the first day of spring.
The Catholic Church had not yet been established and the mish mash of European first day of spring celebrations that the Catholic hijacked and repurposed didn't exist.

You ever wonder why our Easter celebration rarely coincides with Passover?

 

[preacher4truth]

Corruption is something that usually takes a long time. So the 7 very recent manuscripts the KJV translators used, was 1500 years since Christ. The corruption in those manuscripts was extensive. The Byzantine copies of the Bible don't even exist before the 4th century, meaning that there is no continuous lineage back to the autographs.

400 years is a LONG break, and right there puts the Byzantine manuscripts at a huge disadvantage! And just because the Greek scribes copied and copied, doesn't mean those are superior, because of the sheer weight of numbers. Those manuscripts have major errors, mistakes which were accumulated and increased, so by the late 1500s, the Byzantine manuscripts the KJV committee were extremely corrupt!

So how can you have a "pure" and perfect translation, when the manuscripts are so corrupted? Plus, the text is from 400 years ago. And so much tinkering and changes! Not that they were bad corrections. Just that if the 1611 version was so "inspired" why were there so many changes? And more than just updating the spelling. It was corrupt. And the KJV is also corrupt. Although not affecting doctrine.

I will take modern scholars, 6000 Greek manuscripts going back to the second century AD, better Greek and Hebrew tools for the OT, 400 more years of understanding Greek and Hebrew-the languages themselves.

I just don't understand how anyone thinks God reached down from heaven and "inspired" a single translation, in a single language, and every other Bible translation since then, is not!

God inspired the original writers of the Bible. But he used them as people, with strengths and weaknesses.

God did not inspire translators in the 16th century. Or He did, but he also inspired every other version.

Perhaps a better way of saying it, was that God was leading and guiding these scholars as they used their knowledge and training to bring about good translations for people to know the Word. And that includes modern versions. KJV has been a valued and loved translation in the English speaking world. But because all the issues raised in this and other threads, a better choice is to read a modern version, with dynamic equivalence leaning towards functional. God can speak through a modern version in our heart language, far better than a Bible in a dead language, (or at least in a confusing and archaic)!

Of course the way the KJVO sect gets around this is by saying that the KJV is inspired and corrects the Greek.

 

[KJV1611]

Why would Herod wait until after a holiday that had not been invented yet. The book of acts is a historical narrative. No one would be celebrating the not yet established Catholic holiday of Easter. The only historical holidays that would be relevant to that time and place would be feast of unleavened bread which followed Passover night which was called in short Passover week. And the Roman celebration worship if Ishtar which is done on the first day of spring.
The Catholic Church had not yet been established and the mish mash of European first day of spring celebrations that the Catholic hijacked and repurposed didn't exist.

You ever wonder why our Easter celebration rarely coincides with Passover?

I’m not gonna argue the point. Fact is EVERYBODY celebrates the resurrection of Christ on Easter and we all call it Easter. Easter is the fulfillment of Passover.

No one ever read the Bible and concluded that Easter was a pagan holiday, some MAN said it was and people reject the word of God for a mans word.

Easter is no different than Christmas. It’s the celebration of the birth of Christ and the way we celebrate it doesn’t remotely resemble the true meaning of it. Same with Easter.