I’m not sure I quite understand your question.
When it comes to the subject of “tongues”, one must make a distinction between “Biblical ‘tongues’” and what modern tongues-speakers are producing.
When it comes to something spoken, there are no Biblical reference to “tongues” that do not refer to, and cannot be explained in light of, real rational language(s). Biblical ‘tongues’ are nothing more than real, rational languages.
Conversely, there is nothing tongues-speakers are producing that cannot be explained in natural/linguistic terms.
I don't hold the same view as many with respect to 'gifts of the Holy Spirit' or 'spiritual gifts' -
As you may know, there is actually only one place in the entire NT where the term “spiritual gifts” is used (Romans 1:11). After Paul uses the term, he then goes on to define it in verse 12: “that is, that you and I may be mutually encouraged by each other’s faith.” Not much there to support some sort of supernatural extraordinary meaning for the term. The meaning of “spiritual gift”, as Paul uses it, is pretty straightforward.
Considering the fact Paul wrote three letters to three different groups of early Christians describing spiritual ‘gifts’ and did not routinely repeat the same list of gifts, it’s probably safe to assume there are additional spiritual gifts unlisted in his writings.
I would argue that any natural (God-given) talent may be said to be a “spiritual gift” if used in the ministry of God. Paul describes nine specific ones in his letter to the church in Corinth that he felt were the most important to further the message of Christianity in that church at that time and perhaps also in that area of the world.
The spiritual “gift of tongues” (read “manifestation of languages”) in addition to being a knack/ability, what we might call a “natural (or even “God given”) talent” for learning languages easily than others, it is, as far as Paul was concerned, using that ability in spreading the message of Christianity and to the further glory of God.
The “gift of tongues” therefore, does not describe xenoglossia; the ability to speak a language one has never learned or been exposed to in any way, shape, or form.
It can, of course, be argued that anyone can be granted the ‘gift/ability/knack’ for great wisdom, knowledge, faith, healing abilities, etc., just as anyone can be granted the ability to easily learn languages and/or translate those languages….. But it’s how that gift/ability/talent is used that determines/defines it as a ‘manifestation/gift of the H/S”.
Take a totally different ‘gift’ – music. A person may be a ‘gifted’ musician, have the ability/knack/talent, etc. to easily learn to play all sorts of instruments, or to excel at singing, or composing, etc.
For such a person, I would say that they have a God-given ‘gift’ for music. Sure, just about anyone can learn to play an instrument, or to sing, or even compose, but there are those who we say are truly ‘gifted’ at it. Their ability/talent far exceeds the ‘norm’.
Can we say that this is a God-given gift? Yes, I think so. Can it be considered a gift/manifestation of the H/S? I would say if that ability is somehow used in the service of God in whatever way, such that through this ability one could sort of ‘see the power of God’ or the H/S working though this person (that’s probably not the best way to put it, but the only way I can think of to try and explain what I mean by it), then, yes, I would say that it is a manifestation of the H/S. I think that what’s being ‘manifested’ is not so much the particular ability, but rather for an ‘onlooker’ to see the power of God working through this person to further the glory of God (if that makes any sense).
So does that mean that if one has such an ability/gift and doesn’t use it ‘in the service of God‘, that it’s not a ‘gift’? No, I don’t think so. It is a God-given gift; but, it’s not really a manifestation of the H/S either.