Daniel's 70 weeks correctly interpreted (in my opinion)

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TheDivineWatermark

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As for when did Jesus do “the shall be cut off”. Jesus made his triumphant entry on Palm Sunday and exactly 7 days later (one week) he rose from the dead and confirmed the Abrahamic covenant.

Ezekiel’s day for a week has absolutely nothing to do with Daniels 70 weeks. In Daniel one week means 7 days... that’s just more dispensational smoke screens.
So are you saying that [Dan9:25] the "['FROM' and] UNTO the messiah the prince shall be _____ [certain length of time]" totaled only literal [as we know it "weeks"] weeks-of-days?? [62 weeks of 7 days??]


Disagree firmly, on that one. ;)
 

Nehemiah6

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As much as the books are open, they are very spiritual and have nothing to do with what is being discussed in this thread.
Very spiritual does not mean ethereal. No doubt Revelation is a very spiritual book, but that does not give people the liberty to spiritualize, allegorize, or fantasize Scripture.

Revelation -- like every other book in the Bible -- must be read and studied in its plain literal sense, recognizing that it takes us from th first century into the New Heavens and the New Earth.

The Millennium (for example) is a literal 1,000 year period, and so that no one could misrepresent it, God repeats *one (a) thousand years* (Greek chilia ete) six times in seven verses -- a very unusual biblical repetition.

Getting back to Daniel's 70th week, all the prophecies between chapters 6 and 18 fit into that period of seven years. Why? Because the Abomination of Desolation is revealed in Revelation 13.
 

TheDivineWatermark

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I agree with you that "the day of the Lord" and "the last day" are referring to essentially the same time period (of LONG duration); but I disagree that it started in the first century, for the following reasons:

--Paul had to write a corrective to the Thessalonians who were being swayed by false conveyers convincing them [wrongly] that "the Day of the Lord IS PRESENT" (he's telling them WHY this is NOT SO; 2Th2)

--"the Day of the Lord" ARRIVES as "a thief IN THE NIGHT" [1Th5:2-3] with the arrival of the INITIAL "birth PANG [SINGULAR]" of many more "birth PANGS [PLURAL; Mt24:4-8/Mk13:5-8/Lk21:8-11 (and v.12+ says the 70ad events must take place BEFORE them)]" which "birth PANGS [PLURAL]" follow on from that INITIAL one (like birth pangs do!); IT [the time period] ARRIVES at the same time the "whose coming/advent/arrival/presence/parousia" of "the man of sin" does (comp. the "FOR ONE WEEK [7 yrs]" of Daniel 9:27a[verse26]
I forgot my other two points to this:

--the SEALS = "the beginning of birth PANGS [PLURAL]"--i.e. so that the INITIAL ONE is the "G5100 - tis - 'A CERTAIN ONE'" Mt24:4/Mk13:5 (aka the first SEAL rider on wht horse with a bow, often representing DECEPTION; aka the "whose coming" man of sin, 2Th2:9a/Dan9:27a[26])

--and Rev1:1 essentially states that the FUTURE aspects of the book "must come to pass IN QUICKNESS [NOUN]" (not over the course of 2000 yrs)
 
Nov 23, 2013
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So are you saying that [Dan9:25] "['FROM' and] UNTO the messiah the prince shall be _____ [certain length of time]" totaled only literal [as we know it "weeks"] weeks-of-days??
Of course it’s literal weeks because the command to restore and build Jerusalem had nothing to do with earthly Jerusalem. The command was to restore and build heavenly Jerusalem... the city of David.

Act 15:16 (KJV) After this I will return, and will build again the tabernacle of David, which is fallen down; and I will build again the ruins thereof, and I will set it up:
 

TheDivineWatermark

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I was referring to any Old Testament scriptures that deal with 2 destructions of Israel. There are none. All of those scriptures point to the same destruction of Israel.
I see the [Dan9:26b] "shall destroy the city and the sanctuary"... (the people OF the prince that shall come did that);… and I see [Lk21:24b] "Jerusalem shall be trodden down of the Gentiles, UNTIL the TIMES of the Gentiles be fulfilled" (distinct from the phrase "the FULNESS of the Gentiles be come in"), with Lk21:24b parallel with what is stated in Rev11:2 (regarding the last 42 mos before Christ's return to the earth in Rev19). "the TIMES of the Gentiles" started in 606bc, pertains to Neb's statue/image [i.e. Gentile domination over Israel], with Neb as head of gold... (IOW, "the TIMES of the Gentiles" is NOT the equivalent of what is commonly called "the church age").

What are you referring to when you say "2 destructions of Israel"? (do you simply mean what we are saying when we say "the time of Jacob's trouble" is yet future, during the 70th Week? meaning, that what is stated in Daniel 12:1 and elsewhere refers to the second half of the trib [the specific 1260 days leading UP TO His Second Coming to the earth, at which time Daniel will thereafter be "resurrected"])
 

cv5

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Of course it’s literal weeks because the command to restore and build Jerusalem had nothing to do with earthly Jerusalem. The command was to restore and build heavenly Jerusalem... the city of David.

Act 15:16 (KJV) After this I will return, and will build again the tabernacle of David, which is fallen down; and I will build again the ruins thereof, and I will set it up:
The command was to restore and build heavenly Jerusalem... the city of David.
Impossible. No human force has ever influenced Heaven in the least.

The command is enunciated in Neh ch 2. After 173,880 days comes the so-called Triumphal Entry.
I cannot understand all of the confusion, the matter is crystal clear.
 
Nov 23, 2013
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I see the [Dan9:26b] "shall destroy the city and the sanctuary"... (the people OF the prince that shall come did that);… and I see [Lk21:24b] "Jerusalem shall be trodden down of the Gentiles, UNTIL the TIMES of the Gentiles be fulfilled" (distinct from the phrase "the FULNESS of the Gentiles be come in"), with Lk21:24b parallel with what is stated in Rev11:2 (regarding the last 42 mos before Christ's return to the earth in Rev19). "the TIMES of the Gentiles" started in 606bc, pertains to Neb's statue/image [i.e. Gentile domination over Israel], with Neb as head of gold... (IOW, "the TIMES of the Gentiles" is NOT the equivalent of what is commonly called "the church age").

What are you referring to when you say "2 destructions of Israel"? (do you simply mean what we are saying when we say "the time of Jacob's trouble" is yet future, during the 70th Week?)
I’m saying that all of the detailed destructions of Israel are all aver the Old Testament and they’re all talking about the same destruction.

If all of those destructions are at the end of time it seems like the destruction of Israel in AD 70 would at least get one mention.

My point is that there arent any stories in the Old Testament of two destructions of Israel - one in AD 70 and another at the end of time. I repeat, all of the destruction of Israel stories in the Old Testament are the same ONE destruction.
 

TheDivineWatermark

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So are you saying that [Dan9:25] the "['FROM' and] UNTO the messiah the prince shall be _____ [certain length of time]" totaled only literal [as we know it "weeks"] weeks-of-days?? [62 weeks of 7 days??]
^ EDIT: should have said "7 weeks and 62 weeks" (rather than just 62)

"FROM the going forth of the command to restore and to build Jerusalem UNTO the messiah the prince shall be _____ [certain length of time]…"


[69 "WEEKS" (483 years) precisely, to the day, fulfilled on the very day that Jesus said what He did (and did what He did, Zech9:9 ['thy king cometh unto thee/Jerusalem']) in Luke 19:42-44 "but now they are hid from thine eyes"]
 

Locutus

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meaning old testament prophecies or the ones the sons and daughters were said to then prophecy?
Which prophecies do you think the "sons and daughters" prophesied?

Are there any new testament "prophecies" that are not old testament ones?

John in his revelation spoke of seeing a new heavens and earth - which is a reiteration of Isaiah 65:17 - so according to Jesus' statement regarding the days of vengeance when "all things which are written may be fulfilled" the new heavens would be created, so on what basis do you think that Jesus said "some things" which are written may be fulfilled rather than all?

What you are doing is falling into the skeptic "camp" by denying Jesus said ALL and replacing it with your own idea of all which now becomes a disputed some, maybe this but not that.
 

TheDivineWatermark

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I’m saying that all of the detailed destructions of Israel are all aver the Old Testament and they’re all talking about the same destruction.

If all of those destructions are at the end of time it seems like the destruction of Israel in AD 70 would at least get one mention.

My point is that there arent any stories in the Old Testament of two destructions of Israel - one in AD 70 and another at the end of time. I repeat, all of the destruction of Israel stories in the Old Testament are the same ONE destruction.
Did I mention [that there's] TWO? I didn't say that, did I?


I've stated repeatedly that Lk21:12-24a [with 24b following on from there] is the portion of the Olivet Discourse pertaining to the 70ad events, incl'g the verse 22 I just referred to in the post you just quoted of mine. ;)

[this ^ is "BEFORE" the beginning of birth PANGS, which are the far-future SEALS]
 
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The command was to restore and build heavenly Jerusalem... the city of David.
Impossible. No human force has ever influenced Heaven in the least.

The command is enunciated in Neh ch 2. After 173,880 days comes the so-called Triumphal Entry.
I cannot understand all of the confusion, the matter is crystal clear.
I didn’t say it was corrupt. I said to restore and build heavenly Jerusalem. The tabernacle of David that had fallen was earthly Jerusalem which was a foreshadow of heavenly Jerusalem.
 
Nov 23, 2013
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Did I mention [that there's] TWO?
Nobody did and that’s my point. God wiped out Israel and took the kingdom from them and according to some on this thread none of that was even worth mentioning in the Old Testament.

My point is that all those Old Testament stories that are attributed to the end of time actually apply to Israel in the first century and there is no 2nd destruction of Israel at the end of time.
 

cv5

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Of course it’s literal weeks because the command to restore and build Jerusalem had nothing to do with earthly Jerusalem. The command was to restore and build heavenly Jerusalem... the city of David.

Act 15:16 (KJV) After this I will return, and will build again the tabernacle of David, which is fallen down; and I will build again the ruins thereof, and I will set it up:
One week? Of days? All of these events (in bold) will occur in seven solitary sequential days? Utterly impossible.

"And after threescore and two weeks shall Messiah be cut off, but not for himself: and the people of the prince that shall come shall destroy the city and the sanctuary; and the end thereof shall be with a flood, and unto the end of the war desolations are determined. 27And he shall confirm the covenant with many for one week: and in the midst of the week he shall cause the sacrifice and the oblation to cease, and for the overspreading of abominations he shall make it desolate, even until the consummation, and that determined shall be poured upon the desolate."
 
Nov 23, 2013
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One week? Of days? All of these events (in bold) will occur in seven solitary sequential days? Utterly impossible.

"And after threescore and two weeks shall Messiah be cut off, but not for himself: and the people of the prince that shall come shall destroy the city and the sanctuary; and the end thereof shall be with a flood, and unto the end of the war desolations are determined. 27And he shall confirm the covenant with many for one week: and in the midst of the week he shall cause the sacrifice and the oblation to cease, and for the overspreading of abominations he shall make it desolate, even until the consummation, and that determined shall be poured upon the desolate."
Here is the restoration of Jerusalem. Per acts and Simeon, Christ came and built the tabernacle of David and took the gentiles as his people.

Act 15:14 Simeon hath declared how God at the first did visit the Gentiles, to take out of them a people for his name.
Act 15:15 And to this agree the words of the prophets; as it is written,
Act 15:16 After this I will return, and will build again the tabernacle of David, which is fallen down; and I will build again the ruins thereof, and I will set it up:
Act 15:17 That the residue of men might seek after the Lord, and all the Gentiles, upon whom my name is called, saith the Lord, who doeth all these things.
 
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Im out for tonight be back tomorrow.
 

cv5

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Here is the restoration of Jerusalem. Per acts and Simeon, Christ came and built the tabernacle of David and took the gentiles as his people.

Act 15:14 Simeon hath declared how God at the first did visit the Gentiles, to take out of them a people for his name.
Act 15:15 And to this agree the words of the prophets; as it is written,
Act 15:16 After this I will return, and will build again the tabernacle of David, which is fallen down; and I will build again the ruins thereof, and I will set it up:
Act 15:17 That the residue of men might seek after the Lord, and all the Gentiles, upon whom my name is called, saith the Lord, who doeth all these things.
So this will happen in seven sequential days?
 

Noose

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I agree with you that "the day of the Lord" and "the last day" are referring to essentially the same time period (of LONG duration); but I disagree that it started in the first century, for the following reasons:

--Paul had to write a corrective to the Thessalonians who were being swayed by false conveyers convincing them [wrongly] that "the Day of the Lord IS PRESENT" (he's telling them WHY this is NOT SO; 2Th2)

--"the Day of the Lord" ARRIVES as "a thief IN THE NIGHT" [1Th5:2-3] with the arrival of the INITIAL "birth PANG [SINGULAR]" of many more "birth PANGS [PLURAL; Mt24:4-8/Mk13:5-8/Lk21:8-11 (and v.12+ says the 70ad events must take place BEFORE them)]" which "birth PANGS [PLURAL]" follow on from that INITIAL one (like birth pangs do!); IT [the time period] ARRIVES at the same time the "whose coming/advent/arrival/presence/parousia" of "the man of sin" does (comp. the "FOR ONE WEEK [7 yrs]" of Daniel 9:27a[verse26]
That was true then, but the day of the Lord can not be 21st century and still counting, it was shortly after.

Heb 10:36 You need to persevere, so that after you have done God’s will, you will receive what He has promised. 37For, “In just a little while, He who is coming will come and will not delay.

The end times are when the new covenant apply or also known as the church era. They were waiting for the Lord and we know the Lord comes with His saints. That day was not a distant future but they were also waiting for a particular Apostle to die- that Apostle was Peter because on Peter all the church is built. Peter is the faithful witness known as Antipas being referred to in Revelation. When Peter died, the day of the Lord came and the church era officially started.
 

Noose

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Very spiritual does not mean ethereal. No doubt Revelation is a very spiritual book, but that does not give people the liberty to spiritualize, allegorize, or fantasize Scripture.

Revelation -- like every other book in the Bible -- must be read and studied in its plain literal sense, recognizing that it takes us from th first century into the New Heavens and the New Earth.

The Millennium (for example) is a literal 1,000 year period, and so that no one could misrepresent it, God repeats *one (a) thousand years* (Greek chilia ete) six times in seven verses -- a very unusual biblical repetition.

Getting back to Daniel's 70th week, all the prophecies between chapters 6 and 18 fit into that period of seven years. Why? Because the Abomination of Desolation is revealed in Revelation 13.
Something being repeated several times doesn't mean it must be literal, that is a very weak argument. I know the 1000 years are literal but not because it is repeated 6X in seven verses, otherwise the book is spiritual and the physical things being discussed here are futility.
I'm not saying this because i'm guessing, i do understand what i'm saying.
 

Endoscopy

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I agree with that to a degree but I think New Testament scripture explains most of the Old Testament prophecies simply by quoting them and saying this is that spoken by the prophet.
You are ignoring the 2 verses I posted that state the book of Daniel is sealed until the end times. Are you claiming we are currently in the end times. If so where is Jesus?
 

Endoscopy

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That was true then, but the day of the Lord can not be 21st century and still counting, it was shortly after.

Heb 10:36 You need to persevere, so that after you have done God’s will, you will receive what He has promised. 37For, “In just a little while, He who is coming will come and will not delay.

The end times are when the new covenant apply or also known as the church era. They were waiting for the Lord and we know the Lord comes with His saints. That day was not a distant future but they were also waiting for a particular Apostle to die- that Apostle was Peter because on Peter all the church is built. Peter is the faithful witness known as Antipas being referred to in Revelation. When Peter died, the day of the Lord came and the church era officially started.
Correction, end times is the return of Jesus with the angels gathering all living and dead Christians and God vents his wrath on earth killing 2/3 of all life. Only stopping to leave the 1/3 alive. After that Jesus will set up his kingdom ruling from his throne in Jerusalem according to Isaiah.