What is the resurrection of bodies for?

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TheDivineWatermark

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One other thing about the word "apostasia"... this Greek word does not require the definite article ("the") and you can see that it is not present in the Acts 21:21 usage. So the usage of the definite article with it, here, in 2Th2:3, in and of itself gives us further clues: it is a SPECIFIC "departure," and one the Thessalonians were already acquainted with [Paul refers to our Rapture SEVERAL TIMES and in VARIOUS WAYS in his previous 1Th epistle (not to mention VERSE 1!)], something already mentioned in the present context, and that is completely DISTINCT from "the man of sin be revealed" (since ONE THING, and ONE THING ONLY, is stated to occur "FIRST")… more on that later, as I am outta gas and need some zzzzz's :D
 

Hevosmies

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Help me out and let me know which angle you are coming at with this question. Thanks! :)
What I mean is that, if the second advent is in two parts, once for the church, once to setup his Kingdom

is there a similar pattern in the FIRST coming?
 

TheDivineWatermark

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What I mean is that, if the second advent is in two parts, once for the church, once to setup his Kingdom

is there a similar pattern in the FIRST coming?
[regarding your mention of "pattern"] Well, you may recall (or maybe you weren't here during those threads) my saying that His ascension in Acts 1 (which was VISIBLE) and explained to be how He will "shall SO COME in like manner as ye have SEEN Him go into Heaven" (referring to the time of His Second Coming to the earth [Rev19]) was separated by some "40 days" ['trial" "testing" etc] from His EARLIER "[ACTIVE] ascension" ON FIRSTFRUIT [His RESURRECTION DAY; Lev23:10-12 / 1Cor15:20 / Acts 13:33] when no one SAW Him "ascend," but MM was told... ["He appeared FIRST to MM" (some suggest she was a Gentile)]... MM only had His "WORD" that He was doing so, and He instructed her to "go to my brethren, and SAY UNTO them..." (which later that same day "He upbraided [the eleven] with their unbelief and hardness of heart, because THEY BELIEVED NOT them which had seen Him after He was risen.")] I believe THIS pattern is consistent with the future happenings we are discussing now, however, I would not suggest that THIS is "proof of pre-trib," it's simply my personal viewpoint of an additional factor ['pattern'] which also adds to everything else I've mentioned in this thread and other threads about this subject.

Another writer does point out Jesus' "unto" and "into" (or something similar, but which I am too tired yet to recollect this early in the day)… lol [pertaining to the two aspects of His first advent]
 

Hevosmies

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[regarding your mention of "pattern"] Well, you may recall (or maybe you weren't here during those threads) my saying that His ascension in Acts 1 (which was VISIBLE) and explained to be how He will "shall SO COME in like manner as ye have SEEN Him go into Heaven" (referring to the time of His Second Coming to the earth [Rev19]) was separated by some "40 days" ['trial" "testing" etc] from His EARLIER "[ACTIVE] ascension" ON FIRSTFRUIT [His RESURRECTION DAY; Lev23:10-12 / 1Cor15:20 / Acts 13:33] when no one SAW Him "ascend," but MM was told... ["He appeared FIRST to MM" (some suggest she was a Gentile)]... MM only had His "WORD" that He was doing so, and He instructed her to "go to my brethren, and SAY UNTO them..." (which later that same day "He upbraided [the eleven] with their unbelief and hardness of heart, because THEY BELIEVED NOT them which had seen Him after He was risen.")] I believe THIS pattern is consistent with the future happenings we are discussing now, however, I would not suggest that THIS is "proof of pre-trib," it's simply my personal viewpoint of an additional factor ['pattern'] which also adds to everything else I've mentioned in this thread and other threads about this subject.

Another writer does point out Jesus' "unto" and "into" (or something similar, but which I am too tired yet to recollect this early in the day)… lol
Thats great. Jesus actually seems to ascend twice in scripture:

John 20:16-17
Jesus said to her, "Mary!" She turned and said to Him in Hebrew, "Rabboni!" (which means, Teacher). Jesus said to her, "Stop clinging to Me, for I have not yet ascended to the Father; but go to My brethren and say to them, 'I ascend to My Father and your Father, and My God and your God.'"

Acts 1:6-9
So when they had come together, they were asking Him, saying, "Lord, is it at this time You are restoring the kingdom to Israel?" He said to them, "It is not for you to know times or epochs which the Father has fixed by His own authority; but you will receive power when the Holy Spirit has come upon you; and you shall be My witnesses both in Jerusalem, and in all Judea and Samaria, and even to the remotest part of the earth." And after He had said these things, He was lifted up while they were looking on, and a cloud received Him out of their sight.

Then we have the appearing and reappearing to people BEFORE the ascension recorded in Acts.

INTERESTING.

You are awesome DivineWatermark, what church do you attend bro?
 

TheDivineWatermark

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Thats great. Jesus actually seems to ascend twice in scripture:

John 20:16-17
Jesus said to her, "Mary!" She turned and said to Him in Hebrew, "Rabboni!" (which means, Teacher). Jesus said to her, "Stop clinging to Me, for I have not yet ascended to the Father; but go to My brethren and say to them, 'I ascend to My Father and your Father, and My God and your God.'"

Acts 1:6-9
So when they had come together, they were asking Him, saying, "Lord, is it at this time You are restoring the kingdom to Israel?" He said to them, "It is not for you to know times or epochs which the Father has fixed by His own authority; but you will receive power when the Holy Spirit has come upon you; and you shall be My witnesses both in Jerusalem, and in all Judea and Samaria, and even to the remotest part of the earth." And after He had said these things, He was lifted up while they were looking on, and a cloud received Him out of their sight.

Then we have the appearing and reappearing to people BEFORE the ascension recorded in Acts.

INTERESTING.
Yes, and this is what I covered in a thread not long after joining this site (forgive me for not retrieving it at present, I have things I'm rushing to accomplish) :D

You are awesome DivineWatermark, what church do you attend bro?
You are very kind. :) While I do assemble with a body of believers (local church), my very favorite one is [Luk10:39] :D
 

Hevosmies

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Yes, and this is what I covered in a thread not long after joining this site (forgive me for not retrieving it at present, I have things I'm rushing to accomplish) :D



You are very kind. :) While I do assemble with a body of believers (local church), my very favorite one is [Luk10:39] :D
I think that makes the two phases of the second coming idea seem more likely. Thats something for everyone to consider.

I got some serious praying and fasting to do. Gotta get the ducks lined up.
 

Ahwatukee

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I have heard and read pretribbers lay out this order over and over again, and interpret texts to try to make them fit with this. But where do pre-tribbers get the idea that the rapture occurs before the tribulation. Read Revelation. There is no rapture there at the beginning. I've read a pre-trib argument that John hearing 'come up hither' in a vision is supposed to be evidence for pre-trib. But that is such a weak argument for such an important doctrine.
(Part I)

Rev.4:1-2 is indeed a prophetic allusion to when the church is gathered. It is masked so that those who have understanding and discernment will recognize its meaning. This is supported by the fact that after the word "ekklesia" translated "church" no longer appears in the narrative. It is strengthened by the fact that within chapters 1 thru 3 that the word "church" is used 19 times and then after Rev.4:1-2 it never appears within the narrative of God's wrath. The next time the church is alluded to is in Rev.19:6-8 as the bride who is in heaven receiving her fine linen, white and clean and is then seen following the Lord out of heaven riding on white horses and wearing the fine linen that she will have just received (Rev.19:14), which demonstrates that the church is already in heaven during the time of God's wrath.

Another important factor, is that the church is not appointed to suffer God's wrath, neither the wrath that will be coming upon this earth via the seals, trumpets and bowl judgments, nor the wrath of the great white throne resulting in punishment in the lake of fire. The church will experience neither and that because Christ already suffered God's wrath on behalf of every believer, satisfying it completely. If the church was to go through God's wrath, it would nullify what Christ already suffered.


Then when we actually read passages that deal with it, in Matthew 24, the coming of the Son of Man is after the tribulation.
You are correct! in Matthew 24 Jesus lays out the signs leading up to His return to the earth to end the age and establish his millennial kingdom, also known as the second coming. The error is that, you along with others fail to understand that the gathering of the church vs. the Lord's return to the earth, as being two separate events. This is established by the fact that because the church is not appointed to suffer God's wrath, then believers must be removed from the earth prior to said wrath.

The first verse of Revelation tells us what the purpose of the book of Revelation is, which is to "to show His servants what must soon take place." The events of wrath via the seals, trumpets and bowl judgments and all of the related information, are those things that must soon take place. The majority of the book of Revelation is describing God's coming wrath from chapter 6 thru 18.

The gathering of the elect is right there in the coming of the Son of Man verse, not seven years before it.
Again, your claim above is the result of your error of not discerning that there is a difference between the event of the gathering of the church vs. the Lord's return to the earth to end the age as you see them as the same event, which they are not.

Matt.24:29-31 is referring to the Lord's return to end the age and has nothing to do with the gathering of the church. In verse 31 when the Lord sends out His angels to gather His elect, they will be gathering those great tribulation saints who will have survived through that entire seven years and who along with Israel, will enter into the millennial kingdom in their mortal bodies and will repopulate the earth during Christ's thousand year reign.

Matt.24:31 is not in reference to the church being gathered, for angels do not gather the church when the resurrection takes place. Also, that "loud trumpet" is not the "last trumpet" which sounds when the church is gathered, but is just a different type of trumpet. When the dead in Christ hear that voice that sounds like a trumpet, the last of its type, saying "come up here" their bodies will be regenerated/reanimated and their spirits will be reunited with their resurrected bodies. The reference to the elect being gathered from the "four winds, from one end of the heavens to the other" is referring to the angels going throughout the entire earth and gathering living people. These are the wheat of Matt.13:24-30, who will be gathered and brought back into the Lord's barn. Many misinterpret this gathering and apply it to being where the church is gathered, which is false.

Paul writes of the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ and our gathering unto him in II Thes. 2:1, referring to the rapture as the gathering. In I Thes. 4:15, we see that the rapture occurs at the 'parousia', the coming of Jesus.
I Thes.4:13-17 is a detailed account of the when the Lord appears to gather the church, where Matt.24:29-31 is in reference to the Lord's return to the earth to end the age and establish His thousand year reign. When the Lord comes to gather His church, He does not return to the earth, but only calls us up and meets us in the air, where He then takes us back to the Father's house according to His promise in John 14:1-3. Once again, they are two separate events.

In I Thes. 4:15, we see that the rapture occurs at the 'parousia', the coming of Jesus. In II Thes. 4:8, the man of sin is destroyed by the brightness of the Lord's coming. If the man of sin is the beast, and I think most pre-tribbers think that, how can he be destroyed at the rapture and the events still unfold? The man of sin is destroyed at the Lord's coming, and the rapture occurs at the Lord's coming. How is any of this consistent with pre-trib.
Jesus will come and gather His church prior to the opening of the first seal, which represents the revealing of the antichrist as that rider on the white horse and initiates God's wrath which will be in operation throughout the entire seven years. It is at the end of the seven years when Christ returns to end the age that the beast will be destroyed and by being captured and thrown into the lake of fire, along with the false prophet. (Rev.19:20)

As long as you continue to view the Lord's appearing to gather the church as being the same event of the Lord's return to the earth to end the age, your end-time conclusions will be in error.


(Continued due to exceeding 10,000 characters)
 

Ahwatukee

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(Part 2 continued)

Pre-tribbers say the church is not here during the tribulation. But I Thessalonians 1 shows that the church is here when Jesus comes back and executes vengeance on them that know not God, etc.
To be correct, the scripture that you are quoting is 2 Thes.1:8. Below is the scripture in question:

"He will inflict vengeance on those who do not know God and do not obey the gospel of our Lord Jesus. They will suffer the penalty of eternal destruction, separated from the presence of the Lord and the glory of His might, on the day He comes to be glorified in His saints and regarded with wonder by all who have believed, including you who have believed our testimony."

All that the scripture above is saying is that, God's vengeance will be Inflicted against unbelievers, which is referring to His wrath via the seals, trumpets and bowl judgments and that because they will die not believing in Christ they will suffer eternal loss of well being and will be separated from the Lord's presence. It is important to always keep in mind that after the church has been gathered and during the time of God's wrath, there will also be a group of white robed saints from every nation, tribe, people and language (Gentiles) which are introduced in Rev.7:9-17, who are not the church but will be those who will become believers in Christ and are those who are in view throughout chapters 6 thru 18. Not once is this group ever referred to as the church.

Why do pre-tribbers believe the rapture occurs before the tribulation when there is no rapture there before the tribulation in Revelation, the elect are gathered after the tribulation in Matthew 24, and both the rapture and the destruction of the man of sin occur at the Lord's coming?
True believers believe that the Lord comes to gather His church/bride before the tribulation because one, it is God's tribulation, His wrath, which believers are not appointed to suffer and two, no where in scripture is it stated that the gathering of the church and the destruction of the man of lawlessness takes place at the same time.

Those who claim that the church is gathered when the Lord returns to the earth to end the age have an enormous problem! Said problem being that, Revelation 19:11-21 is a detailed account of the Lord's return to the earth to end the age. In verse 6-8 the bride/church is revealed to be in heaven receiving her fine linen, white and clean at the wedding of the Lamb. Then in verse 14, we see the bride/church following the Lord out of heaven riding on white horses. We know that the army is referring to the bride, because it is said that they are wearing the same fine linen, white and clean that she received at the wedding. In support of this, we also have a reference to when the Lord returns to the earth in Rev.17:14

"They (the beast and the ten kings) will make war against the Lamb, and the Lamb will triumph over them, because He is Lord of lords and King of kings; and He will be accompanied by His called and chosen and faithful followers.”

The above scripture is in reference to Rev.19:19 when the beast and the kings of the earth with their armies assembled to wage war against the One seated on the horse, and against His army, which are His called, chosen and faithful followers, the bride/church.

All that said, how can the church be caught up a the time when the Lord returns to the earth to end the age, when the scriptures that I just posted show the church following the Lord out of heaven and returning with Him riding on white horses? There are those who would try to make that army as being angels, but angels would neither receive fine linen at the wedding of the Lamb, nor would they be designated as "called, chosen and faithful followers."

I guess I know why pre-tribbers think that way. They've heard sermons and read books so much and just believe in pre-trib. They want to believe in pre-trib because some of those events sure sound like something nice to miss. But I just can't see how it fits any of the details in the passage.
I have done my own personal studies on the word of God and end-time events and base all of my conclusions squarely on God's word and not the writings of men. This whole controversy of the Lord's appearing to gather His church prior to His wrath vs. the church being gathered when the Lord returns to the earth to end the age, rests on God's coming wrath and the principle that believers are not appointed to suffer said wrath. It is a matter of understanding the principle of why this which is that Jesus already suffered God's wrath on behalf of every believer.

Therefore, since God's wrath must take place on this earth leading up to the Lord's return to end the age, then the church must be removed prior to God's wrath. And for those who would argue that God is going to protect the church during the tribulation period, they have not understood the severity and magnitude of God's wrath as described via the seals, trumpets and bowl judgments. As an example, with just the first 4 seals and the 6th trumpet, a fourth and a third respectively, well over half the earths population will be killed within the first 3 1/2 years of that seven year period and that is not including the fatalities that will result from trumpets 1, 2 and 3, nor from the bowl judgments. Regarding God's wrath and their results Jesus said:

"For at that time there will be great tribulation, unmatched from the beginning of the world until now, and never to be seen again. If those days had not been cut short, nobody would be left alive."

And you believe that the Lord is going to leave His church on the earth during that time?

The 'not appointed unto wrath' passage is often used as an excuse. Wrath is anger, not a time period. Christians are not appointed unto God's wrath. I do not understand why pre-tribbers would think that those believers who will be alive during the tribulation are 'appointed unto wrath', but they aren't. Those saints will reign with Jesus. They are not objects of God's wrath.
Refer back to what I just wrote. If those days of wrath were allowed to go on any longer than the specified 3 1/2 years, no one would be left alive on planet earth. First of all "not appointed to suffer God's wrath" is not an excuse, but a promise. It is in line with when Jesus said "because you have endured patiently, I will also keep you out of the hour of trial." Those who believe in Christ have been credited with righteousness and have been reconciled to God. That said, why would God send His church through the time of His wrath when Jesus already satisfied it? There would be no reason for the church to go through God's wrath, for it will be against all who have continued to reject Christ and who continue living according to the sinful nature. There is absolutely no reason for the church to be here on the earth during the time of God's wrath.
 

presidente

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Ahwakutakee, why would you believe the tribulational sainrs are appointed unto God's wrath?
 

presidente

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Ahwatukee,

I realize after reading your posts, the only reason you gave me to believe in pre-trib is that supposedly, as a pre-tribber, you have some kind of discernment to somehow see pre-trib in verses that us non-pre-tribbers cannot, for example this verse. And so from this passage, the ones with spiritual discernment are supposed to see that there is a pre-tribulation rapture?

Revelation 4:1-2
1 After this I looked, and, behold, a door was opened in heaven: and the first voice which I heard was as it were of a trumpet talking with me; which said, Come up hither, and I will shew thee things which must be hereafter.
2 And immediately I was in the spirit: and, behold, a throne was set in heaven, and one sat on the throne.
(NKJV)

I'm not buying it. John, in a supernatural visionary experience was told to 'Come up hither.' That doesn't say the church is raptured before the tribulation. I could also tell you that 'Come up hither' means don't each too much chocolate in the winter time, and that if you are truly spiritually discerning, you will see it in that verse. I could tell you it says to vote for me for president too, if you are truly discerning. Sorry, the claim to mystic perception of what verses mean, but do not say, is not working on me.

I am not willing to read into Paul's references to the 'parousia' the idea that it means more than one event, based on your assertions about this verse.

Other than reinterpreting the apostasia as the rapture, is there any verse at all that actually shows, demostrates, or teaches a pre-trib rapture in the whole Bible?

Not Appointed Unto Wrath
You also seem to treat 'wrath' as a time period. Wrath has to do with anger, not a time period. If we look in I Thessalonians 5, can't we agree that the wrath here is the wrath of God, not the wrath of Satan or the enemies of the church?

I Thessalonians 5
9 For God did not appoint us to wrath, but to obtain salvation through our Lord Jesus Christ,

Notice the contrast in the verse. There are those appointed unto wrath, and those who have salvation.

Let's suppose a missionary is over in the middle east. He preaches about Jesus, and some ISIS fanatics are full of wrath, and chop his head off....in wrath. Does that mean the man was 'appointed unto wrath'? Maybe he was appointed to man's wrath or Satan's wrath, but not the kind of wrath described in the verse I just quoted.

Paul uses similar language here:

Ephesians 2
3 among whom also we all once conducted ourselves in the lusts of our flesh, fulfilling the desires of the flesh and of the mind, and were by nature children of wrath, just as the others.
(NKJV)

When they were sinners before they were forgiven, they were children of wrath. This is a salvation thing.

Why would you think God is angry at the saints in the tribulation? That really does not make sense. They aren't appointed unto wrath, either. They are going to 'obtain salvation through our Lord Jesus Christ' (again notice the contrast in the 'appointed unto wrath' verse.)

I noticed you read a lot of ideas into verses that were not in the passages. I intend to point some of those out in another post.
 

TheDivineWatermark

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^ presidente, consider the following (briefly):

--1Th5:9-10 is to, for, and about "the Church which is His body" (of whom the Rapture ['IN THE AIR'] SOLELY pertains)

--[contrastly] Lk21:36[27-28 for context] is trib saints (awaiting His Second Coming to the earth); see also Daniel 7:20-21/Rev13:7 (where Dan7:21 states "[the saints...] and shall prevail against them" and Rev13:7 states "to make war with the saints and to overcome [same word used in Rev6:2 (2x)] them"--and recall what Jesus had said regarding "My Church" in Mt16:18 "shall NOT"--which happens to also pertain to those in the trib who will come to trust Christ [etc (who do not take the mark...)]--this doesn't mean trib saints aren't present during the trib [that's when they come to faith!!--recall 2Th1:10b "IN THAT DAY" in contrast to those who WON'T, 2Th2:10-12, in the SAME TIME PERIOD], but they were not raptured because they were not saved until AFTER the Rapture has occurred, i.e. IN the DOTL time period / IN THAT DAY [the same time period that the "STRONG DELUSION" occurs, i.e. not presently / not in "this present age"])


[both 2Th1:10b and 2Th2:10-12 are contrasting "beliefs" people will have "IN THAT DAY / the Day of the Lord [TIME PERIOD, which STARTS at the INITIAL "birth PANG [SINGULAR; 1Th5:2-3]" and there are MANY MORE to FOLLOW on from that INITIAL one...]
 

presidente

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(Part 2 continued)



To be correct, the scripture that you are quoting is 2 Thes.1:8. Below is the scripture in question:

"He will inflict vengeance on those who do not know God and do not obey the gospel of our Lord Jesus. They will suffer the penalty of eternal destruction, separated from the presence of the Lord and the glory of His might, on the day He comes to be glorified in His saints and regarded with wonder by all who have believed, including you who have believed our testimony."

All that the scripture above is saying is that, God's vengeance will be Inflicted against unbelievers, which is referring to His wrath via the seals, trumpets and bowl judgments and that because they will die not believing in Christ they will suffer eternal loss of well being and will be separated from the Lord's presence.
Thanks for putting in the effort to write all this. You spent a lot of time on it. I do not agree with your position, but I appreciate your study time.

I know there are variants of pre-trib, but I was taught that there would be a peace treaty-- peace peace when there is no peace-- and that there would be some kind of peace for a while with a middle east peace treat early in the 7 years, and the unpleasant stuff heats up more and more toward the end

Look at the verse up there in II Thessalonians 1:8. In this verse, Jesus is actually returning to be glorified in his saints. Pre-tribe has Jesus come half way down, get the saints, and go up again. So that's different. Pre-trib-- the version I was taught, gives the people on the earth some kind of mixed peace of some sort or the other.

There is no way to get two comings of Jesus out of II Thessalonians. That sort of thing has to be 'read into' the passage, just as it does with Revelation.

It is important to always keep in mind that after the church has been gathered and during the time of God's wrath, there will also be a group of white robed saints from every nation, tribe, people and language (Gentiles) which are introduced in Rev.7:9-17, who are not the church but will be those who will become believers in Christ and are those who are in view throughout chapters 6 thru 18. Not once is this group ever referred to as the church.

As far as I can tell in my readings, and especially of Revelation, John never refers to all the saints throughout the whole world as 'the church.' Paul does-- or eventually starts to call the 'church' that in his writings. In early writings, it refers to literal assemblies or the saints who regularly assemble. So in John's writing, a church is a church in an assembly. Revelation does not call all those seven churches 'the church.' An individual congregation is called 'church' in Revelation. All believers everywhere are called 'saints.'

But II Thessalonians 1 does tell us that the 'church' will be here when Jesus gets back, which disproves this pre-trib argument.

Also the 'first resurrection' occurs AFTER the second coming passage in Revelation at the end of the book. In I Thess. 5 the resurrection of the dead in Christ occurs immediately BEFORE the rapture. So the timing of pre-trib is all off.

I Corinthians 15 tells us that dead who are Christ's will be made alive 'at His coming', not seven years before His coming. There is no Biblical justification for making 'the parousia' into two events. So why go to the trouble of trying to explain Revelation or Thessalonians in a way to fit to pre-trib? There is no reason to want to do so? The only real reason is if someone has already been taught pre-trib, believes it, and wants it to be in the Bible. Who wants to go through a time of persecution and suffering?

True believers believe that the Lord comes to gather His church/bride before the tribulation because one, it is God's tribulation, His wrath,
The tribulation is not God's wrath. Wrath means anger or indignation, not a difficult time.

Show me where the Bible teaches the Lord will gather His church before the tribulation. That's the issue. John hearing 'come up hither' doesn't cut it.

which believers are not appointed to suffer and two, no where in scripture is it stated that the gathering of the church and the destruction of the man of lawlessness takes place at the same time.
The gathering of the elect occurs at or just after the coming of the Son of Man 'after the tribulation of those days in Matthew 24. I Thessalonians 2:1, using almost the same word for 'gathering' as Matthew 24, except that it's a noun not a verb speakings of the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ and our gathering unto Him.

Where is a pre-trib rapture in all this? Again, if you make the apostasy into the rapture, you can try to make an argument for it.

And I Thes. 4:15 and II Thes. 2:2 show us two things that happen at Jesus' coming: 1. the resurrection/rapture event. 2. the destruction of the man of sin.

What is the justification for making this into two events? Why try to spin all these verses into pre-trib when there is no real reason to believe it in the first place, and one second coming makes a lot more sense?

{quote]
Those who claim that the church is gathered when the Lord returns to the earth to end the age have an enormous problem! Said problem being that, Revelation 19:11-21 is a detailed account of the Lord's return to the earth to end the age. In verse 6-8 the bride/church is revealed to be in heaven receiving her fine linen, white and clean at the wedding of the Lamb. [/quote]

Woah, woah, wait just one minute. Let us actually look at the passage.

Revelation 19
7 Let us be glad and rejoice, and give honour to him: for the marriage of the Lamb is come, and his wife hath made herself ready.
8 And to her was granted that she should be arrayed in fine linen, clean and white: for the fine linen is the righteousness of saints.
9 And he saith unto me, Write, Blessed are they which are called unto the marriage supper of the Lamb. And he saith unto me, These are the true sayings of God.
10 And I fell at his feet to worship him. And he said unto me, See thou do it not: I am thy fellowservant, and of thy brethren that have the testimony of Jesus: worship God: for the testimony of Jesus is the spirit of prophecy.
11 And I saw heaven opened, and behold a white horse; and he that sat upon him was called Faithful and True, and in righteousness he doth judge and make war.
(NKJV)

So, look, there is no seen of the saints here getting their linen in heaven. Instead, we see an announcement that it was given to her that she should be arrayed in fine linen, then a second coming vision. We know from Paul's writings that at the parousia, the church is caught up to meet the Lord in the air. This all fits perfectly with post-trib. There is no need to invent an extra rapture that is taught nowhere in scripture. You don't have to have two second comings, or postulate a 7 year second coming where Jesus just stays there up in the air for seven years or any of that.

Then in verse 14, we see the bride/church following the Lord out of heaven riding on white horses. We know that the army is referring to the bride, because it is said that they are wearing the same fine linen, white and clean that she received at the wedding. In support of this, we also have a reference to when the Lord returns to the earth in Rev.17:14
Consider what Paul says in I Thessalonians 4. When Jesus comes back, the saints are caught up to meet Him in the air. So He does come back with the saints. II Thessalonians 1 says He comes back with holy angels, so that is true, too.

So Jesus being in the air with the saints is consistent with a straightforward reading of the Bible about Jesus coming back for the Second Coming only once. There does not need to be a second second coming. There is no reason here to have to invent a pre-trib theory.

I have done my own personal studies on the word of God and end-time events and base all of my conclusions squarely on God's word and not the writings of men. This whole controversy of the Lord's appearing to gather His church prior to His wrath vs. the church being gathered when the Lord returns to the earth to end the age, rests on God's coming wrath and the principle that believers are not appointed to suffer said wrath. It is a matter of understanding the principle of why this which is that Jesus already suffered God's wrath on behalf of every believer.
Wrath is anger, not a time period. We also have something somewhat similar in Exodus. God did not remove Israel from Egypt through a rapture to pour our His judgments on Egypt. He just kept the judgments from splashing on His own people. God is capable of such things.

The 'not appointed unto wrath' verse as I have shown before is contrasting wrath with obtaining salvation. Tribulational saints are not appointed unto wrath either.

"For at that time there will be great tribulation, unmatched from the beginning of the world until now, and never to be seen again. If those days had not been cut short, nobody would be left alive."

And you believe that the Lord is going to leave His church on the earth during that time?

Refer back to what I just wrote. If those days of wrath
This passage does not call them days of wrath. But of course God has His people here during this time, and shortens the days for the elects sake.

IF you don't think it is God's will for His people to suffer, read the Bible.
 

Nehemiah6

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I know there are variants of pre-trib, but I was taught that there would be a peace treaty-- peace peace when there is no peace-- and that there would be some kind of peace for a while with a middle east peace treat early in the 7 years, and the unpleasant stuff heats up more and more toward the end
This is correct since the Antichrist does make a covenant with Israel (Dan 9:27). And he could not make this covenant unless he was able to persuade the Muslim world to back off. And since he would probably present himself to them as the Mahdi, they would listen to him.
 

TheDivineWatermark

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[continuing my previous post/thought]...

Consider also the parallels between:

--Lamentations 2:3-4 [1-7 wider context] "he hath drawn back his right hand from before the enemy" (i.e. he let 'er rip!) [Rev4-5 when Jesus "STANDS to JUDGE" (Isa3:13) and opens the FIRST "SEAL"]

[with]

--2Th2:7-8 "only he who now [presently] letteth/hinders/restraineth will let/hinder/restrain, UNTIL out of the midst he be come [come to be]. AND THEN shall that Wicked BE REVEALED..." (i.e. the FIRST SEAL, aka the INITIAL "birth PANG [SINGULAR; 1Th5:2-3 (FIRST of MANY MORE to follow on from there!]" at the START of the DOTL time period, aka Matt24:4.Mk13:5 "G5100 - tis - 'a certain one'")
[ ^ same as the above passage/Lam2:3-4]; this being one of the THREE instances in chpt 2Th2 of the SAME SEQUENCE (which is also SAME SEQUENCE shown in 1Th4-5!)
 

ewq1938

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TheDivineWatermark

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According this, the 1889 Liddel and Scott says apostasia means a defection. So, I am suspicious of this "other" version from 1909.
http://www.perseus.tufts.edu/hopper/text?doc=Perseus:text:1999.04.0058:entry=a)postasi/a

ἀποστασία late form of ἀπόστασις
defection, Plut.

Liddell and Scott. An Intermediate Greek-English Lexicon. Oxford. Clarendon Press. 1889.
Glad you posted this. But, may I ask, what does the "Plut." stand for?? ^


and this part came from the phrase stating "late form of..." [key!] :

http://www.perseus.tufts.edu/hopper/wordfreq?lang=greek&lookup=a)po/stasis
 

ewq1938

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^ On page 93 of my Liddell and Scott's Greek-English Lexicon Abridged ("Typeset in 2007 in larger type from the original, for easy reading and copied from the edition of 1909") the entry for "apostasia" states:

"a standing away from, and so 1. a defection, revolt. 2. departure or removal from. 3. distance, interval."

Even this from 2007 disputes your understanding of word because it states: a standing away from, and so 1. a defection, revolt.

It equates the "standing away from" with "defection, revolt"

That's what the word means. It does not mean a rapture which is a different word altogether, "Harpazo".
 

ewq1938

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Glad you posted this. But, may I ask, what does the "Plut." stand for?? ^

I would need actual book or a link to it online to see what the list of Abbreviations are. So far I have no found a link to it, just sites that quote from it.
 

TheDivineWatermark

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Even this from 2007 disputes your understanding of word because it states: a standing away from, and so 1. a defection, revolt.

It equates the "standing away from" with "defection, revolt"

That's what the word means. It does not mean a rapture which is a different word altogether, "Harpazo".
I recently made a post that said something to the effect of, Paul, in 1 & 2 Thessalonians, made reference to our "Rapture" (what we commonly call it today) something like TEN TIMES, and only ONE of those numerous times did he use the term "harpagēsometha" (1Th4:17). This is JUST ONE reference to it (in these 2 epistles). THERE ARE MANY. So the ideas being conveyed in 2Th2 is just YET ANOTHER way of stating the same thing (using different terms/words/phrases).

I'm not saying that "apostasia" is DEFINED as "going up to Heaven" but (as I stated) "DEPARTURE" (it's up to the CONTEXT to determine "WHAT KIND" of DEPARTURE is meant, in any given passage or even other outside writings--and THAT is because "from the faith" or "from some faith issue" or even "FROM MOSES" is not inherent within the word itself, thus these added words tell "WHAT KIND"... just as in my previous examples used at that time/era "the departing OF A FEVER" and "the departure OF A BOAT FROM A DOCK").


P.S. I suspected, and discovered this is indeed the case, that "Plu." meant "Plutarch" (not found in the Bible :D ). But it's okay! ;)


"a standing away from, and so" means ALL OF THE FOLLOWING THREE ENTRIES (not just #1!)
 

ewq1938

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just as in my previous examples used at that time/era "the departing OF A FEVER" and "the departure OF A BOAT FROM A DOCK").
That hasn't been proven, only claimed so far.


P.S. I suspected, and discovered this is indeed the case, that "Plu." meant "Plutarch" (not found in the Bible :D ). But it's okay! ;)

Funny but youare using the same argument above when referring to non-biblical uses. Plutarch is a person BTW.