KING JAMES VERSION BIBLE VS. MODERN ENGLISH BIBLES
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We know you KJVO disciples all sneak-read the modern translations to discover what the Bible actually says because you can't actually understand the KJV
We know you KJVO disciples all sneak-read the modern translations to discover what the Bible actually says because you can't actually understand the KJV
When you present a bible you believe in to be the pure word of God without error, then we can have a debate.
Yep. You got your brain out of the washer. Sadly, the dryer you put it in was too hot as it dried it.
Sam Gipp, Gail Riplinger, and Steven Anderson are REALLY proud of you.
#Waytogo!
i was thinking maybe this guy doesn't know that he can click on "page 2" of the BDF
so for a brief moment there wasn't a KJV-ONLY-OR-BURN-IN-HADES thread on page 1, and he thought something like 'omigosh the gospel not being preached' . . . ?
so maybe i can help:
in the future, if it ever happens that you go to your favorite website and you don't immediately see a NO-MAN-COMES-TO-THE-FATHER-EXCEPT-THROUGH-KING-JAMES thread, fret not, simply click where the red arrow indicates in the screenshot above.
i like spiders. big fan. amazing creatures.
so i have a personal, non-scholarly reason to hope this is accurate:
The spider taketh hold with her hands, and is in kings' palaces.
(Proverbs 30:28, KJV)
however nearly every other translation into English ((and other languages)), reads like this:
The lizard you may grasp with the hands, Yet it is in kings' palaces.
(Proverbs 30:28, NASB)
i've asked several times in KJV-ONLY-WHAT'S-WRONG-WITH-YOU-HEATHENS threads for some kind of linguistic explanation for why the KJV is correct here but so many translators disagree with it.
never gotten what i was looking for. couple times i got the 'KJV says so therefore it must be correct, because, KJV' answer, but well y'all know what kind of reasoning that is.
so another fresh thread, let's ask again i guess
so i have a personal, non-scholarly reason to hope this is accurate:
The spider taketh hold with her hands, and is in kings' palaces.
(Proverbs 30:28, KJV)
however nearly every other translation into English ((and other languages)), reads like this:
The lizard you may grasp with the hands, Yet it is in kings' palaces.
(Proverbs 30:28, NASB)
i've asked several times in KJV-ONLY-WHAT'S-WRONG-WITH-YOU-HEATHENS threads for some kind of linguistic explanation for why the KJV is correct here but so many translators disagree with it.
never gotten what i was looking for. couple times i got the 'KJV says so therefore it must be correct, because, KJV' answer, but well y'all know what kind of reasoning that is.
so another fresh thread, let's ask again i guess
the context, vv. 24-28, actually makes more sense to me if it's a lizard that can be caught by the hands, yet is found even in a palace ((overcoming weakness)) -- same theme in the other 3 things grouped here (("little, but exceedingly wise" v.24)):
- ants, not strong, but store up food for winter
- conies, feeble, but house themselves in the strength of rocks
- locusts, without leadership, but move collectively in an orderly way
each of these first three sayings are examples of creatures with inherent weakness somehow naturally overcoming that through wisdom.
consider as the fourth:
- spiders, catch things with their hands, and live even in a well-guarded palace
does that mesh? i trow not!
however:
- lizards, easily caught, but still dwell in the kings house
this jives with the rest of what Agur groups together. it fits the theme and makes sense.
now, that's without any look at the Hebrew, which if i'm not mistaken, the word here is not used anywhere else, and at the time the KJV was made, it's clear from many other citations that they were unsure about the correct meaning of a great many words referring to plants and animals ((hence 'unicorns' and 'basilisks' etc)) -- so they made a guess at it and hoped to be later corrected.
from what i understand later scholarship indicated that the word here means 'lizard' not 'spider' -- is this correct?
the way our resident subjects of King James speak, the tiniest mistake in the KJV destroys their whole worldview. so this may seem a small thing ((that is, if you don't love spiders like post does)) -- but it's actually quite important.
appreciate any insight
Do not worry, they will invent some explanation.
If nothing, they can come with some deep mystery.
this is the word in question --
8079. semamith
Strong's Concordance
Part of Speech: Noun Feminine
Transliteration: semamith
Phonetic Spelling: (sem-aw-meeth')
Short Definition: lizard
interestingly even Strong's concordance says KJV is wrong here!
what do you think?
8079. semamith
Strong's Concordance
semamith: (a kind of) lizard
Original Word: שְׂמָמִיתPart of Speech: Noun Feminine
Transliteration: semamith
Phonetic Spelling: (sem-aw-meeth')
Short Definition: lizard
interestingly even Strong's concordance says KJV is wrong here!
what do you think?
In both Elizabethan English, and 17th century German, the f and the s were written very similarly; with the s distinguished by a thickened dot at the top right end of the curved portion.
Aw c'mon Marc, we're just having a bit of sun. Errr... fun.
I can see thefe "f" and "s" words could caufe some confternation.
I'm not looking for a debate. I don't see Bible translations as being opposed to each other. We are meant to be batting for the same team not trying to take each other out.
It would certainly be in our time. Most high and mighty prince(ss) was a title bestowed on royalty not only in England but in most of Europe. It is made subservient to God in the next line 'by the grace of God King'
Habit or not, he certainly was not a king of France, this is a clear lie.
Also, royalty in most of Europe, even calling themselves Christians, were so far away from honesty and humbleness as pope was from the Bible.