Why the Gap Theory is unacceptable

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Joseppi

Senior Member
Jan 4, 2018
887
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#21
perhaps during the destruction of the Tower of Babel?
It seems likely.
And it appears to have occurred because the Pacific Ocean basis had dropped rapidly to facilitate the abating of flood waters off the continents.
There being global evidence of great troughs dug by those floodwaters pouring quickly off the continents down to the depth of the new basins.
The plan of God being to create and to keep nations separated until the gospel was ready and the time of the end one world globalization set it motion when he ordained to be.
At Babel Satan tried to prevent man’s dispersion across the earth and keep man under one king and language so as to usurp that Kong’s authority and destroy all mankind easily as possible.
 

phil36

Senior Member
Feb 12, 2009
8,345
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#22
You are quite correct. At least not human advocacy. As mentioned in my post the best support for it is the Hebrew text.

Personally I have no need to reconcile Scripture with Science so called. The idea that any living organism happened accidentally is absurd. My post was in response to PS' attempt to make the 6 days of creation into ages. That linguistically doesn't work.
If someone believes in 'old earth' creation; the Gap theory works linguistically. Whether it works theologically is a question I frankly haven't explored.
I am sure many scholars understand the Hebrew very well and come to a different conclusion to which you hold. As I say it's not a view held by most scholars any longer, I know some still hold the view. I just don't see the evidence for it.

I know what PS is saying and it seems a strong view in the Old earth camp. I have to say Hugh Ross gives good arguments. And I am sure these guys have checked the Hebrew. And it is more wide spread and more reasoned that the Gap theory.

Personally I hold to a traditional view. But I am impressed with the day age view, when you hear the arguments.


 

Joseppi

Senior Member
Jan 4, 2018
887
7
18
#23
The Gap theory really does not have much support now. It was an early attempt by well meaning christians to come up with an explanation of creation events other than the traditional christian view and Darwins theory.
The only gap is the gap in time during which the angels dwelt with God until the day Satan was found to have become evil, and his rebellion began by questioning God’s word and God’s worthiness to be God.
 

MarcR

Senior Member
Feb 12, 2015
5,486
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#24
I am sure many scholars understand the Hebrew very well and come to a different conclusion to which you hold. As I say it's not a view held by most scholars any longer, I know some still hold the view. I just don't see the evidence for it.

I know what PS is saying and it seems a strong view in the Old earth camp. I have to say Hugh Ross gives good arguments. And I am sure these guys have checked the Hebrew. And it is more wide spread and more reasoned that the Gap theory.

Personally I hold to a traditional view. But I am impressed with the day age view, when you hear the arguments.


The scholars who endorsed the theory in the late 19th and early 20th century must have seen it in the Hebrew text.

The fact that it is no longer popular is not IMO related to its linguistic soundness.
 
Nov 12, 2015
9,112
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#25
The Gap theory really does not have much support now. It was an early attempt by well meaning christians to come up with an explanation of creation events other than the traditional christian view and Darwins theory.
I'm not sure they were just trying to come up with an alternate view. If an unlearned woman like me can come to something similar just by trying to research the Hebrew definitions (and before I'd heard about any gap theory), then surely a learned man could come to it.
 

Bladerunner

Senior Member
Aug 22, 2016
3,076
59
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#26
It seems likely.
And it appears to have occurred because the Pacific Ocean basis had dropped rapidly to facilitate the abating of flood waters off the continents.
There being global evidence of great troughs dug by those floodwaters pouring quickly off the continents down to the depth of the new basins.
The plan of God being to create and to keep nations separated until the gospel was ready and the time of the end one world globalization set it motion when he ordained to be.
At Babel Satan tried to prevent man’s dispersion across the earth and keep man under one king and language so as to usurp that Kong’s authority and destroy all mankind easily as possible.
Kong's ??????????Authority...WHO is this ---never heard about him.....Surely your not calling GOD.......Kong??????
 

MarcR

Senior Member
Feb 12, 2015
5,486
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#27
I do not believe in the gap theory. I have read Genesis 1 in Hebrew, and although I am not close to where Marc is, I didn’t not see a gap. It is just not there.

What I do remember is all the theosophy and books by Blavatsky and Alice Bailey I read, that claim all this nonsense. But so much more! Atlantis, reincarnation, it got so esoteric it was crazy. And of course Jesus, ONE of the ascended masters.

People need to stick to the Bible. Even if a gap is remotely hinted at in Genesis, we know nothing, and idle speculation is unproductive and good for nothing!
While we disagree on this, you certainly did a great job of presenting the opposing point of view. If I were not persuaded of the linguistic soundness of the theory; you might well persuade me.
 

Bladerunner

Senior Member
Aug 22, 2016
3,076
59
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#28
Despite the article by Lee Irons /www.oneplace.com/ministries/bible-answer-man/read/articles/the-gap-theory-of-genesis-12-16836.html which you extensively quote without giving credit. Irons fails to mention that Merrill F. Unger (Unger's Bible Dictionary) and the McClintock and Strong Bible Encyclopedia also propose a gap between verse 1 and verse 2 of Genesis 1.
did not come to my belief in a gap between verse 1 and verse 2 and/or between verse 2 and verse 3 from any of these sources. Before commenting on any chapter in my commentary, I parse the chapter in the original Language. When I did so with Genesis 1 the Gap suggested itself for reasons mentioned below.




I believe that the 6 days of creation in Genesis 1 are literal 24 hour days. I believe that this creation narrative speaks of re-creation after a cataclysmic upheaval.

Gen 1:2
2 And the earth was without form, and void; and darkness was upon the face of the deep. And the Spirit of God moved upon the face of the waters.
KJV


without form, and void תֹ֙הוּ֙ וָבֹ֔הוּ a desolation and a waste.

note that the waters are already present.

Gen 1:6-9
6 And God said, Let there be a firmament in the midst of the waters, and let it divide the waters from the waters.

firmament לָרָקִיעַ means expanse or horizon

7 And God made the firmament, and divided the waters which were under the firmament from the waters which were above the firmament: and it was so.

made This is not בָּרָ֣א created this is יֲּ֣עֲשׂ called forth, made manifest, allowed to be seen.

The waters under the horizon are now divided (separated or distinguished) from the waters above the horizon [as fog or clouds].


Nothing in the Hebrew precludes this from being a previously created Sun now made visible. Also nothing in the Hebrew precludes the light in verses 3 and 4 from having come from a previously created Sun.


8 And God called the firmament Heaven. And the evening and the morning were the second day.
9 And God said, Let the waters under the heaven be gathered together unto one place, and let the dry land appear: and it was so.
KJV

Nte that the land is already present (as were the waters) and appears when the waters recede adding more order to the chaos.


Gen 1:11-12
11 And God said, Let the earth bring forth grass, the herb yielding seed, and the fruit tree yielding fruit after his kind, whose seed is in itself, upon the earth: and it was so.

whose seed is in itself The way this verse is written requires that itself must refer to the earth. This means that the seed of all the plants is already present in the earth and is likely a vestige of a previous creation.

12 And the earth brought forth grass, and herb yielding seed after his kind, and the tree yielding fruit, whose seed was in itself, after his kind: and God saw that it was good.
KJV

Gen 1:21
21 And God created great whales, and every living creature that moveth, which the waters brought forth abundantly, after their kind, and every winged fowl after his kind: and God saw that it was good.
KJV

Here the word created is used for the first time since verse 1.

These facts do not require belief in a gap between verse 1 and verse 2; and/or between verse 2 and verse 3; but they certainly do not preclude it. If anything IMO they suggest it.



The best support for the 'Gap Theory' is the Hebrew text, from whence I derived my version of it. While I was aware of the 'Gap Theory' proposed by both Unger's Bible Dictionary and the McClintock and Strong Bible Encyclopedia I arrived at the Gap theory in my commentary independently and to the best of my knowledge it is original. Before Nehemiah's post, I was unaware of Chalmers' or Scofield's involvement with it.


One of many articles in defense of the Gap Theory can be found here: The Gap Theory interpretation of Genesis

Hi MarcR........ Liked your post on the Gap theory...... While we are lacking the words that tell us that there is for certain a gap, it is for certain that man's science cannot measure past 5,000years, if that much accurately. Unfortunately all they use to quantify time is circular evidence.

We know God 'WAS' long before Gen 1:1 as shown in John 1:1. From my perspective, I am looking at it from a Geocentrist point of view. According to verses in the Bible and scientific knowledge we have, the earth is not a globe, nor is it a pear shaped Oblate. From this point of view, The Gap Theory would not be needed as evolution would be null and void.

I make no excuses for I took a leap of faith that God's words in the Bible are actually HIS WORD!

While I don't have the Hebrew text you have, I would almost bet that they would say something different if the above was used.

Blade
 
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Zmouth

Senior Member
Nov 21, 2012
3,391
134
63
#29
Thinks for this post.
I have always questioned how a perfect God could create a world that was void and without form.
And the earth was without form, and void; Gen 1:2

Without form refers to the lack of any features; Void refers to the lack of any living matter, or substance.

Since a man can not pick up a book and read it unless he is taught how to read, and a man can not read the Bible unless he receives the Father, those who who have not seen him grope in the dark without light, and makes those who do not know him to stagger like a drunken man.

John 12:36









 

MarcR

Senior Member
Feb 12, 2015
5,486
183
63
#30
Despite the article by Lee Irons /www.oneplace.com/ministries/bible-answer-man/read/articles/the-gap-theory-of-genesis-12-16836.html which you extensively quote without giving credit. Irons fails to mention that Merrill F. Unger (Unger's Bible Dictionary) and the McClintock and Strong Bible Encyclopedia also propose a gap between verse 1 and verse 2 of Genesis 1.
did not come to my belief in a gap between verse 1 and verse 2 and/or between verse 2 and verse 3 from any of these sources. Before commenting on any chapter in my commentary, I parse the chapter in the original Language. When I did so with Genesis 1 the Gap suggested itself for reasons mentioned below.




I believe that the 6 days of creation in Genesis 1 are literal 24 hour days. I believe that this creation narrative speaks of re-creation after a cataclysmic upheaval.

Gen 1:2
2 And the earth was without form, and void; and darkness was upon the face of the deep. And the Spirit of God moved upon the face of the waters.
KJV


without form, and void תֹ֙הוּ֙ וָבֹ֔הוּ a desolation and a waste.

note that the waters are already present.

Gen 1:6-9
6 And God said, Let there be a firmament in the midst of the waters, and let it divide the waters from the waters.

firmament לָרָקִיעַ means expanse or horizon

7 And God made the firmament, and divided the waters which were under the firmament from the waters which were above the firmament: and it was so.

made This is not בָּרָ֣א created this is יֲּ֣עֲשׂ called forth, made manifest, allowed to be seen.

The waters under the horizon are now divided (separated or distinguished) from the waters above the horizon [as fog or clouds].


Nothing in the Hebrew precludes this from being a previously created Sun now made visible. Also nothing in the Hebrew precludes the light in verses 3 and 4 from having come from a previously created Sun.


8 And God called the firmament Heaven. And the evening and the morning were the second day.
9 And God said, Let the waters under the heaven be gathered together unto one place, and let the dry land appear: and it was so.
KJV

Nte that the land is already present (as were the waters) and appears when the waters recede adding more order to the chaos.


Gen 1:11-12
11 And God said, Let the earth bring forth grass, the herb yielding seed, and the fruit tree yielding fruit after his kind, whose seed is in itself, upon the earth: and it was so.

whose seed is in itself The way this verse is written requires that itself must refer to the earth. This means that the seed of all the plants is already present in the earth and is likely a vestige of a previous creation.

12 And the earth brought forth grass, and herb yielding seed after his kind, and the tree yielding fruit, whose seed was in itself, after his kind: and God saw that it was good.
KJV

Gen 1:21
21 And God created great whales, and every living creature that moveth, which the waters brought forth abundantly, after their kind, and every winged fowl after his kind: and God saw that it was good.
KJV

Here the word created is used for the first time since verse 1.

These facts do not require belief in a gap between verse 1 and verse 2; and/or between verse 2 and verse 3; but they certainly do not preclude it. If anything IMO they suggest it.



The best support for the 'Gap Theory' is the Hebrew text, from whence I derived my version of it. While I was aware of the 'Gap Theory' proposed by both Unger's Bible Dictionary and the McClintock and Strong Bible Encyclopedia I arrived at the Gap theory in my commentary independently and to the best of my knowledge it is original. Before Nehemiah's post, I was unaware of Chalmers' or Scofield's involvement with it.


One of many articles in defense of the Gap Theory can be found here: The Gap Theory interpretation of Genesis

without form, and void תֹ֙הוּ֙ וָבֹ֔הוּ a desolation and a waste.

OT:922

OT:922 בֹּ֫הוּ) noun [masculine] emptiness (on form see Ges§ 84 a, 1 b Sta§ 95, 198 a, on usage compare LagOr. ii. 60 f.) always with תֹהוּ) q. v.; — תֹהוּ וָבֹּ֫הוּ)
Gen 1:2 of primeval earth; Jer 4:23 of earth under judgment of וְאַבְנֵי בֹהוּ קַן־תֿהוּ Isa 34:11, the line of wasteness and the stones of emptiness, i.e. plummets, employed, not as usual for building, but for destroying walls; compare Di & see below א6אבן (from Brown-Driver-Briggs Hebrew and English Lexicon, Unabridged, Electronic Database. Copyright © 2002, 2003, 2006 by Biblesoft, Inc. All rights reserved.)

The words tohoo v'bohoo signify the aftermath of destruction or condemnatory judgement.
 

Nehemiah6

Senior Member
Jul 18, 2017
26,074
13,778
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#31
The phrase, "And the Earth was without form, and void," points to a stupendous convulsion which affected the Earth after it was created by God.
This interpretation goes with the Gap Theory, so it would appear that you have accepted it. But there are other ways to interpret tohu wa bohu -- without form and void. Many translations say formless and empty which is fair enough.

"Void" (empty) of course simply means DEVOID OF plant, animal, and human life, and that corresponds to the globe initially surrounded by an envelope of water. So "without form" is the phrase that is debated. It could simply mean a formless mass of mineral molecules, or a mass of dust and gas. That is how astronomers see the formation of planets today.
 

Dan58

Senior Member
Nov 13, 2013
1,991
339
83
#33
I personally believe the gap theory, mainly because it makes sense..
Genesis 1:2
"And the earth was without form and void" "Was" is the wrong English word here, there is no 'was' in Hebrew. The Massorah renders it "hayah" (Strong's Concordance ref #1961). Hayah means; "to become or came to pass". So verse 2 should read that "The earth became void and without form".

So I believe God completely annihilated and destroyed the first earth age, after Satan's rebellion (Revelation 12:4).

"For this they willingly are ignorant of, that by the word of God the heavens were of old, and the earth standing out of the water and in the water: Whereby the world that then was, being overflowed with water, perished: But the heavens and the earth, which are now, by the same word are kept in store, reserved unto fire against the day of judgment and perdition of ungodly men." ((2 Peter 3:5-7). No one was ignorant of Noah's flood, so I believe this is describing a first world age that "perished".

[SUP]"[/SUP]I beheld the earth, and, lo, it was without form, and void; and the heavens, and they had no light. I beheld the mountains, and, lo, they trembled, and all the hills moved lightly.I beheld, and, lo, there was no man, and all the birds of the heavens were fled. I beheld, and, lo, the fruitful place was a wilderness, and all the cities thereof were broken down at the presence of the Lord, and by his fierce anger. For thus hath the Lord said, The whole land shall be desolate; yet will I not make a full end. For this shall the earth mourn, and the heavens above be black; because I have spoken it, I have purposed it, and will not repent, neither will I turn back from it." (Jeremiah 4: 23-28). It states there was no man, but we know Noah & others survived, so this was complete destruction where the earth was left void and in darkness until Genesis 1:3.

Note that in Genesis 1:28, God says "Replenish the earth", suggesting that it was inhabited before. God did not create the world void and empty, it became that way.. Isaiah 45:18 says that God did not create the earth in vain, but to be inhabited... jmo

 
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trofimus

Senior Member
Aug 17, 2015
10,684
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#34
Days in Genesis are so obviously not 24hours periods that there is no need to put some mysterious gaps into it.
 

Nehemiah6

Senior Member
Jul 18, 2017
26,074
13,778
113
#35
[SUP]"[/SUP]I beheld the earth, and, lo, it was without form, and void; and the heavens, and they had no light. I beheld the mountains, and, lo, they trembled, and all the hills moved lightly.I beheld, and, lo, there was no man, and all the birds of the heavens were fled. I beheld, and, lo, the fruitful place was a wilderness, and all the cities thereof were broken down at the presence of the Lord, and by his fierce anger. For thus hath the Lord said, The whole land shall be desolate; yet will I not make a full end. For this shall the earth mourn, and the heavens above be black; because I have spoken it, I have purposed it, and will not repent, neither will I turn back from it." (Jeremiah 4: 23-28).
This passage has been misinterpreted and misapplied by those who believe in the Gap Theory, and here's why.

1. The context is the FUTURE JUDGMENT of Israel and the earth. To confirm this one must read the entire chapter and see this.

2. There is a double application of verses 23-28. As Matthew Henry points out, this passage could have a primary application to the land of Judah, but it actually points “To a worse chaos than this will the earth be reduced at the end of time, when it, and all the works that are therein, shall be burnt up.”.

3. So in fact, it should be connected with the supernatural burning of the earth (within “the day of the LORD”) before the New Heavens and the New Earth are brought into existence. This burning of the earth is described in 2 Peter 3:5-13:

5 For this they willingly are ignorant of, that by the word of God the heavens were of old, and the earth standing out of the water and in the water:
6 Whereby the world that then was, being overflowed with water, perished:
7 But the heavens and the earth, which are now, by the same word are kept in store, reserved unto fire against the day of judgment and perdition of ungodly men.
8 But, beloved, be not ignorant of this one thing, that one day is with the Lord as a thousand years, and a thousand years as one day.
9 The Lord is not slack concerning his promise, as some men count slackness; but is longsuffering to us-ward, not willing that any should perish, but that all should come to repentance.
10 But the day of the Lord will come as a thief in the night; in the which the heavens shall pass away with a great noise, and the elements shall melt with fervent heat, the earth also and the works that are therein shall be burned up.
11 Seeing then that all these things shall be dissolved, what manner of persons ought ye to be in all holy conversation and godliness,
12 Looking for and hasting unto the coming of the day of God, wherein the heavens being on fire shall be dissolved, and the elements shall melt with fervent heat?
13 Nevertheless we, according to his promise, look for new heavens and a new earth, wherein dwelleth righteousness.


 

Nehemiah6

Senior Member
Jul 18, 2017
26,074
13,778
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#36
Days in Genesis are so obviously not 24 hours periods that there is no need to put some mysterious gaps into it.
There is a "gap" in your data bank. Please note:

GENESIS 1

5
And God called the light Day, and the darkness he called Night. And the evening and the morning were the first day...

8
And God called the firmament Heaven. And the evening and the morning were the second day...

13
And the evening and the morning were the third day...

19
And the evening and the morning were the fourth day...

23
And the evening and the morning were the fifth day...

31
And God saw every thing that he had made, and, behold, it was very good. And the evening and the morning were the sixth day.

Now who can deny that "evening and morning" repeated six times defines each day, and it is also stated plainly as a specific day?
 

phil36

Senior Member
Feb 12, 2009
8,345
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#37
I'm not sure they were just trying to come up with an alternate view. If an unlearned woman like me can come to something similar just by trying to research the Hebrew definitions (and before I'd heard about any gap theory), then surely a learned man could come to it.
Learned men did come to that conclusion. I still stand by the fact that they came to their conclusion with Darwinism in the back of their minds. The gap theory is just a theory.. Where is the gap? where does it say in sipture that God created the world and basically satan ruined it..so God started again and then satan ruined it again? that is what I would call a gap!

But I know a small amount of people still hold this view... I just can;t see it being a tenable argument..and the vast majority of scholars now agree. I don't believe the 'linguistics' conclude a two world creation.
 

phil36

Senior Member
Feb 12, 2009
8,345
2,159
113
#38
The scholars who endorsed the theory in the late 19th and early 20th century must have seen it in the Hebrew text.

The fact that it is no longer popular is not IMO related to its linguistic soundness.
I agree with you they did.. but I would suggest they wanted to see something there. They were looking for a way to be able explain what science claimed they where uncovering...Darwinism.

It's not that it is just unpopular, is believed to be wrong! there is a difference.

In my humble opinion the 6 day ages theory has far superior arguments compared to the Gap theory. I don't agree with that either I hold the traditional view.. I believe the theological correct view..Yep linguistics are important but so is theology! As you have admitted you have not looked at the theology. Here is what you have said:

the Gap theory works linguistically. Whether it works theologically is a question I frankly haven't explored.
I am quite shocked really that you come to your view without frankly, looking at the theology of creation. Maybe that's where the gap theory went wrong in the first place?
 

Gabriel2020

Senior Member
May 6, 2017
1,099
41
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#39
Void means something there ,but cannot be seen,has been blotted out, or hidden. As the earth was hidden under water and could not be seen. It had no form or shape, because it grew throughout the water from one end to the other. not in just one place of the universe. The rock we live on is just a portion of the entire earth,as it is called.
 

Lucy-Pevensie

Senior Member
Dec 20, 2017
9,388
5,729
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#40
Void means something there ,but cannot be seen,has been blotted out, or hidden. As the earth was hidden under water and could not be seen. It had no form or shape, because it grew throughout the water from one end to the other. not in just one place of the universe. The rock we live on is just a portion of the entire earth,as it is called.
My view when reading the text was always 'void' 'empty'. Like a glass. Until it is filled with water it is empty. Just a transition to the next step. It never occurred to me that something catastrophic must have happened to cause it to be empty. It simply hadn't been filled yet. I saw it as God in the process of creating it. The earth wasn't teaming with life until The Lord poured life into it. But I don't think I'm an expert on this topic.

Will we be witnesses as The Lord makes the new heavens and the new earth? I hope so. That is something to REALLY look forward to. Then we will understand so much more.