The King James Bible

[Angela53510]

Don't you think you are trying to make a big deal out of a small thing. You even had the sense to understand that I meant chapter in your original question. I wonder how many times you accidentally typed something wrong had to be corrected and it was a simple oversight. I certainly do not claim perfection and I have posted quite a bit of information. I may have typed "found in the Bible X times" but is should have read "found in the New Testament X times." Thank you for pointing out my error but swallowing a gnat won't kill you.

You're the one who insists upon mathematical perfection, near as I can tell, in all your posts. The same standard should then apply to your words.

Did you read the discussion in the last few pages? People talking about why they think the KJV is inspired and why they think it is not! And not a single number or strange, twisted use of the obsessive number 37. I must admit, you have given me new insight and grace for towards the "normal" KJV Onlyist. They seem so, how to put it delicately, "rational" compared to the endless numerological posts you keep inflicting upon us.

 

[John146]

KJV
And there was again a battle in Gob with the Philistines, where Elhanan the son of Jaareoregim, a Bethlehemite, slew the brother of Goliath the Gittite, the staff of whose spear was like a weaver's beam.

NIV
In another battle with the Philistines at Gob, Elhanan son of Jair the Bethlehemite killed the brother of Goliath the Gittite, who had a spear with a shaft like a weaver’s rod.

ASV
And there was again war with the Philistines at Gob; and Elhanan the son of Jaareoregim the Beth-lehemite slew Goliath the Gittite, the staff of whose spear was like a weaver's beam.

GNT
There was another battle with the Philistines at Gob, and Elhanan son of Jair from Bethlehem killed Goliath from Gath, whose spear had a shaft as thick as the bar on a weaver's loom.

Help me here, I don't see the contradictions.

The majority of new versions give Elhanan credit for killing Goliath even though this contradicts the rest of Scripture. The NIV changed it's position to match the KJV.

 

[James37]

You're the one who insists upon mathematical perfection, near as I can tell, in all your posts. The same standard should then apply to your words.

Did you read the discussion in the last few pages? People talking about why they think the KJV is inspired and why they think it is not! And not a single number or strange, twisted use of the obsessive number 37. I must admit, you have given me new insight and grace for towards the "normal" KJV Onlyist. They seem so, how to put it delicately, "rational" compared to the endless numerological posts you keep inflicting upon us.

Do not confuse Gods perfection with my imperfection.

"But the wisdom that is from above is first pure, then peaceable, gentle, and easy to be intreated, full of mercy and good fruits, without partiality, and without hypocrisy." James 3:17 (emphasis is mine!)

 

[Musicus]

The majority of new versions give Elhanan credit for killing Goliath even though this contradicts the rest of Scripture. The NIV changed it's position to match the KJV.

Hmmm, yes, I see that. Rather glaring discrepancy at that. I must be more observant. Thank you.

 

[posthuman]

2 Timothy 3:16 All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:

Do you believe all Scripture was given by inspiration of God or is given?

Did God inspire words and then lost them?

Did God inspire words and commanded to live by them and not preserve them for us?

there's no actual verb in the Greek of 2 Timothy 3:16

"is" is not in the text.

 

[JairCrawford]

The KJV is one of the more word-for-word translations out there, yes. And yes it uses the Textus Receptus for its NT translation. But it is a translation. If authenticity is what you are going for, then a Hebrew-Greek to English interlinear would be a superior reading.

And there is nothing wrong with paraphrase translations or thought-for-thought translations either. Right now I'm using a bible app reading the New Living Translation on one side, and the Hebrew and Greek (with available interlinear, usually KJV or NASB) on the other for comparison to the original text. I simply find the NLT easier to read than the KJV when I'm not in 'study mode'.

 

[John146]

there's no actual verb in the Greek of 2 Timothy 3:16

"is" is not in the text.

Inspiration of the Scripture occurs in the present tense when the Spirit grants understanding of the word of truth. The main purpose for the words of the Scripture is to reveal the sound doctrines of God. See Job 32:8 below.

8 But there is a spirit in man: and the inspiration of the Almighty giveth them understanding.

In...spir...ation means an infusion of God's words into the heart of the believer by the Holy Ghost. Understanding of God's words is attained through the Spirit of God. God gives understanding to the sincerely humble and contrite spirit. It is an ongoing process, therefore, the word "is" is used to complete the doctrinal meaning.

 

[Angela53510]

Do not confuse Gods perfection with my imperfection.

"But the wisdom that is from above is first pure, then peaceable, gentle, and easy to be intreated, full of mercy and good fruits, without partiality, and without hypocrisy." James 3:17 (emphasis is mine!)

Fixed that number bolding problem for you!


This really shows a serious mental issue. Because, 17 is not, and never will be 7.

And 3:17 is not, and never will be 37. I would ask you to watch "A Beautiful Mind." It is about a real mathematician, John Nash, who suffered from schizophrenia. He began to see numbers in everything. And conspiracy theories, too! Eventually he was diagnosed with schizophrenia. Because you have just tried to force your OCD/psychosis into a verse reference, that simply is not, and never will be 37. If that number was important in any way, shape or form, which it is not!

And the verse references are not inspired! They were created 1200 years after Jesus lived and died. Here is some history on verses and chapters, and when they were added, (thankfully, I might add!) to the Bible

"The chapter divisions commonly used today were developed by Stephen Langton, an Archbishop of Canterbury. Langton put the modern chapter divisions into place in around A.D. 1227. The Wycliffe English Bible of 1382 was the first Bible to use this chapter pattern. Since the Wycliffe Bible, nearly all Bible translations have followed Langton's chapter divisions.

The Hebrew Old Testament was divided into verses by a Jewish rabbi by the name of Nathan in A.D. 1448. Robert Estienne, who was also known as Stephanus, was the first to divide the New Testament into standard numbered verses, in 1555. Stephanus essentially used Nathan's verse divisions for the Old Testament. Since that time, beginning with the Geneva Bible, the chapter and verse divisions employed by Stephanus have been accepted into nearly all the Bible versions."

https://www.gotquestions.org/divided-Bible-chapters-verses.html


Again, if you feel attacked because people are pointing out the numerous errors of your ways, then perhaps it is time to look at yourself. Because, the propositions in this thread by you are utter nonsense, this post showing definitively that you do not understand math at all, and you are suffering from some sort of mental illness. Please see a doctor, this or of condition can be helped!

 

[posthuman]

The majority of new versions give Elhanan credit for killing Goliath even though this contradicts the rest of Scripture. The NIV changed it's position to match the KJV.

it's not a contradiction, in any version.

compare 1 Chronicles 20:5 and 2 Samuel 21:19.

in your trusty KJV, in 2 Samuel 21:19, you will see that "the brother of" is in italics. in this translation, italics indicate that it is not in the text being translated, but is an addition made for the sake of readability or interpretation.
other translations, instead of inserting italicized words into the text, put footnotes.

no one reading Chronicles or Samuel who has heard of David believes we are talking about the same Goliath. his head was in Jerusalem!

 

[posthuman]

Inspiration of the Scripture occurs in the present tense when the Spirit grants understanding of the word of truth. The main purpose for the words of the Scripture is to reveal the sound doctrines of God. See Job 32:8 below.

8 But there is a spirit in man: and the inspiration of the Almighty giveth them understanding.

In...spir...ation means an infusion of God's words into the heart of the believer by the Holy Ghost. Understanding of God's words is attained through the Spirit of God. God gives understanding to the sincerely humble and contrite spirit. It is an ongoing process, therefore, the word "is" is used to complete the doctrinal meaning.

so you're OK with adding to the 'pure words' of scripture as long as it's the KJV that adds to the scripture, and you agree it's an ongoing process except you don't because you think the ongoing process began, took place, and stopped entirely in the early 1600's?

 

[Angela53510]

Inspiration of the Scripture occurs in the present tense when the Spirit grants understanding of the word of truth. The main purpose for the words of the Scripture is to reveal the sound doctrines of God. See Job 32:8 below.

8 But there is a spirit in man: and the inspiration of the Almighty giveth them understanding.

In...spir...ation means an infusion of God's words into the heart of the believer by the Holy Ghost. Understanding of God's words is attained through the Spirit of God. God gives understanding to the sincerely humble and contrite spirit. It is an ongoing process, therefore, the word "is" is used to complete the doctrinal meaning.

Job 32:8
"But it is a spirit in people,
the breath of the Almighty,
that makes them understand." NET

"But it is the spirit in a person,
the breath of the Almighty, that gives them understanding." NIV

"But it is the spirit in man,
the breath of the Almighty, that makes him understand." ESV

"But it is a spirit in man
and the breath of the Almighty
that give him understanding." HCSB

Wow! All these versions, (and many more) speak of the breath or "inspiration" of God. So, that makes them all directly inspired, too! Because God gives us understanding and that is in any version.

I won't even get into how you pulled this completely out of context! Well, maybe just a bit! This is a speech by Elihu, who is claiming wisdom his elders do not have. It is not a direct quote from God, and it certainly has NOTHING to do with any Bible version, let alone one translated in the 16th century! (My comments above aside! I was just trying to prove how wrong your ridiculous quote is!) Talk about misusing the Bible! Really, King James would NOT be happy!

And seriously, the word "is" helps doctrinal understanding?? Not so much! In fact, "is" is a helping verb used in English. It is the present 3rd person singular, of the verb "to be." It is used to convey an idea in English, which is found in a single word in either Hebrew or Greek. It is sometimes used in the present tense, if there is a predicate nominative to be found, if it is not a helping or auxiliary verb.

You really do need to study English a bit more, before you post these lies. Or maybe just plain "made up" nonsense. I guess the KJV stands or falls on the nonsense it supporters have made up to try and justify it.

Why not just accept that you have a preferred text, that works for you? I can agree with that. But never that the KJV is the only inspired translation of the Bible.

 

[John146]

it's not a contradiction, in any version.

compare 1 Chronicles 20:5 and 2 Samuel 21:19.

in your trusty KJV, in 2 Samuel 21:19, you will see that "the brother of" is in italics. in this translation, italics indicate that it is not in the text being translated, but is an addition made for the sake of readability or interpretation.
other translations, instead of inserting italicized words into the text, put footnotes.

no one reading Chronicles or Samuel who has heard of David believes we are talking about the same Goliath. his head was in Jerusalem!

Two Goliaths now...first I've heard of that. Do you really believe that? Btw, footnotes create doubt in truth.

 

[John146]

so you're OK with adding to the 'pure words' of scripture as long as it's the KJV that adds to the scripture, and you agree it's an ongoing process except you don't because you think the ongoing process began, took place, and stopped entirely in the early 1600's?

The KJV contains the pure words of Scripture in the English language. If the "originals" were in English, it would contain the very words of the KJV.

 

[trofimus]

Two Goliaths now...first I've heard of that. Do you really believe that? Btw, footnotes create doubt in truth.

Footnotes explain why translator chose this way of translation or which are other possible readings.

So it actually serves for truth not being left out when translator is not sure.

 

[posthuman]

Inspiration of the Scripture occurs in the present tense when the Spirit grants understanding of the word of truth. The main purpose for the words of the Scripture is to reveal the sound doctrines of God. See Job 32:8 below.

8 But there is a spirit in man: and the inspiration of the Almighty giveth them understanding.

look closer at your translation.

in Job 32:8, "there is" is italicized. it is not actually in the Hebrew. it is an human addition to the text -- your kjv tells you that.

but a spirit in man: and the inspiration of the Almighty gives them understanding

James may find it interesting, that the Hebrew of Job 32:8 is exactly 7 words.
the kj English translation including the openly inserted words has 16,
the kj English translation excluding the italicized additions has 14.

in terms of the understanding he's trying to accomplish through combinatorics, the 'pure word' is the Hebrew: 7
((really should stick with the original languages to look for such things. more on that in a later, bigger, mathy post))
the 'adulterated word' would be the kjv with its clarifying additions: 16
closer is the kjv sans its interpretive augmentations: 14

James will think, ooh, 14 = 7*2 -- there's a 7.
with the rationale he's into, that would be good, because, 7. better than 16, not evenly divisible by 7. so including the italicized words? bad -- back to Chronicles, Samuel, and large men named Goliath: it's stupid to be arguing that the kjv gets this 'right' and other translations are introducing contradictions: that's based on an introduction of extra-textual words in the kjv the translators made in order to avoid the appearance of contradiction ((there isn't any contradiction. use brain.)) - and these italic additions wreck the patterns.
that same rationale should lead you to the Hebrew though: the number is pure there: 7. in the kjv stripped of additional interpretive words, it's closer, but it's 2*7, not 7 --

- to get 14 from 7, a function has been applied to 7, f(x) = 2*x

so that the 'pattern' is not the original pattern, it's a morphed one. that's translation. kjv is a translation. it's not the purest form of the word.

Babel happened. Genesis 11.
deal with it.

 

[John146]

Footnotes explain why translator chose this way of translation or which are other possible readings.

So it actually serves for truth not being left out when translator is not sure.

Do you go by the truth of the text or the truth in the footnotes?

 

[posthuman]

Two Goliaths now...first I've heard of that. Do you really believe that? Btw, footnotes create doubt in truth.

first you've heard of that?

come on dude. did David kill Goliath or did Elhanan kill Goliath or are we talking about different Goliaths? wasn't that your own point?

or we doing the same thing people have said about counting to 37 and ignoring what the text actually says; you are not seeing what's written, you're only seeing the subtitle that says 'kjv' ?

confusion's coming out of your mouth now. please fix.

 

[trofimus]

Do you go by the truth of the text or the truth in the footnotes?

Thats on every reader. Translator is not god to decide for you.

Translator only helps you. He is not the Holy Spirit. He is only man and sometimes he simply does not know.

The fact that some translations like the KJV do not have footnotes does not make all their words truth, but it makes them more dark, because you have no idea what are other possible readings. Translators hid that from you.

 

[posthuman]

create doubt in truth.

what are you doing when you tell someone who reads the Bible in Polish that nothing but the kjv is the actual word of God and all other versions - including his Polish one - are corrupt adulterations from hell?

you building his faith or you scuttling it?

 

[la_justicia]

Me too...Any prayers, I need some too. I am always praying for all of us that we get the understanding from God as we ask for it. With too much translations and too many feelings in the translations and. God separate them all and show us the truth. With a sincere heart our questions can be answered, through others and through mere revelations.