1) you are trying to change the definitions of words to escape the force of those words.
I didn't change the definition of word "justified." You need to look at the context to determine how it is used. You simply give the word "justified" a broad brushed definition of saved.
In the Strong's Exhaustive Concordance of the Bible, the Greek word for justified "dikaioo" #1344 is:
1. to
render righteous or such he ought to be
2.
to show, exhibit, evince, one to be righteous, such as he is and wishes himself to be considered
3.
to declare, pronounce, one to be just, righteous, or such as he ought to be
God is said to have been
justified by those who were baptized by John the Baptist (Luke 7:29). This act
pronounced or declared God to be righteous. It did not make him righteous. The basis or ground for the pronouncement was the fact that God
IS righteous. Notice that the NIV reads, "acknowledged that God's way was right.." The ESV reads, "they declared God just.." This is the sense in which God was justified, "shown to be righteous." Once again, James is not using the word "justified" to mean "accounted as righteous" but is "shown to be righteous." James is discussing the
proof of faith (says-claims to have faith but has no works/I will show you my faith by my works), not the initial act of being accounted as righteous with God (Romans 4:2-3).
Matthew 11:19 "The Son of Man came eating and drinking, and they say, 'Behold, a gluttonous man and a drunkard, a friend of tax-gatherers and sinners!' Yet wisdom is
justified/vindicated/shown to be right by her deeds."
In Luke 16:14-15, "Now the Pharisees, who were lovers of money, also heard all these things, and they derided Him. And He said to them, "You are those who
justify yourselves before men, but God knows your hearts. For what is highly esteemed among men is an abomination in the sight of God."
The Pharisees belief was that their own goodness was what justified them. This is the very definition of
"self-righteousness." But, as Jesus explained, their righteousness was flawed, being an external appearance only. That might be enough to justify them before (deceived) men,
but not before God, because He knew their hearts.
In Matthew 12:37, "For
by your words you will be justified, and
by your words you will be condemned." This is because our words reveal the state of our hearts. Words will appear to be evidences for, or against a man's being in a state of grace and righteousness.
Luke 23:39 - Then
one of the criminals who were hanged blasphemed Him, saying, "If You are the Christ, save Yourself and us." - by your words you will be condemned/evidence against being in a state of grace and righteousness.
Luke 23:40 - But the other, answering,
rebuked him, saying, "Do you not even fear God, seeing you are under the same condemnation? 41 And we indeed justly, for we receive the due reward of our deeds; but this Man has done nothing wrong." 42 Then he said to Jesus, "Lord, remember me when You come into Your kingdom." - by your words you will be justified/evidence for being in a state of grace and righteousness.
2) you are trying to rewrite James 2:24 to read one is justified for some unknown reason then does works
Justified "accounted as righteous" by faith (Genesis 15:6; Romans 4:2-3; 5:1) precedes justified "shown to be righteous" by works (Genesis 22; James 2:21). Works bear out the justification that comes by faith. You are trying to force James 2:24 to teach that we are saved by works, in contradiction to Ephesians 2:8,9. You need to properly harmonize scripture with scripture.
and Rom 6;17,18 to read they were freed from sin for some unknown reason then obeyed from the heart.
They
obeyed the gospel from the heart when they
believed the gospel (Romans 10:16; 1:16). You self righteously want to read salvation by works into Romans 6:17,18.
Notice in Romans 10:10 - For with the
heart one believes unto righteousness..
Notice in Romans 4:5 - But to him who does not work but
believes on Him who justifies the ungodly,
his faith (not works which precede or follow faith) is accounted for righteousness.
3) you accuse James of being incorrect when James speaks of Abraham's work in offering Isaac,
Not at all. James is using Abraham to describe how he proved the genuineness of his faith by the work that he did many years (Genesis 22) later AFTER he BELIEVED the Lord and his
faith, not works, was accounted to him for righteousness (Genesis 15:6; Romans 4:2-3).
James 2:23, then shows Abraham was justified by that work in offering Isaac (verse 24), and not by faith only.
The scripture was fulfilled in vindicating or demonstrating that Abraham believed God and was accounted as righteous.
Abraham was accounted as righteous because of his faith (Genesis 15:6) long before he offered up Isaac on the altar and demonstrated the reality of his faith in Genesis 22. Faith only - per James means
an empty profession of faith, a dead faith, not genuine faith. If someone
says/claims he has faith but has
no works to back up their claim (James 2:14) they demonstrate that their claim is bogus. Faith only = bogus claim of faith. You error by teaching "faith only" - per James is actually genuine faith that produces no works, which would be an oxymoron.
James made the works the MEANS of justification and not just the evidence of it.
False! This would mean that when Abraham BELIEVED the Lord in Genesis 15:6 and his faith was accounted to him for righteousness, he was still a lost man UNTIL he offered up his son Isaac on the altar and was then finally saved. Faith is the MEANS of justification (Romans 4:2-6; 5:1) and works bear out the justification that comes by faith. If what you said is true, then Ephesians 2:8,9 would read: For by grace you have been saved through faith AND works. INSTEAD, Paul said - *For
by grace you have been saved through faith, and that not of yourselves; it is the gift of God, not of works, lest anyone should boast.
