Are King James Bible believers "Idolaters"?

[brandplucked]

what I can show you is this.

the KJV is flawed in many areas.

The KJV is a word for word translation of some of those greek texts, which even you admit is flawed/ The greek language is far deeper than the english langage.

for example. the greek word shows 4 words for love, all having different meanings. yet in all cases, the kjv translates of of them love, which could very easy lead one to mistranslate what is being said.

Hi EG. You got this silly and extremely ignorant example from some other Bible Agnostic's site. I have seen it many times and it is just plain ignorance. First of all, there are NOT 4 Greek words for love in the Bible. There are TWO. Secondly, virtually all Bible translations in all language correctly translate both words as "love". This includes the ESV, NIV, NASB, NKJV, RV, ASV, RSV, NRSV and on and on. Why is this? Because THERE IS NO DIFFERENCE IN MEANING.

Here is the proof -

These "serious scholars" like to think they are privy to special insights and nuances the rest of us peons of the pews cannot fathom. They take great pains to let us know there are subtle meanings found only in "the original Greek" of which we garden variety Christians remain woefully ignorant until they exercise their priestcraft to open these hidden treasures on our behalf.

They tell us that such a case is found in the New Testament use of two distinct words for love - agape and phileo. You will constantly hear these scholarly types tell us that agape means God's unconditional love, while phileo means a friendship type of love.

Well, let's take a closer look at how God uses these two words and see if there is really something to what they say or not.

John 3:16 "God so loved the world that he gave his only begotten Son..." The verb used here is form of 'agape', so we are told it always means a God-type unconditional love. OK, but what do we then do with these verses using the same verb?

John 3:19 "And this is the condemnation, that light is come into the world, and men LOVED darkness rather than light, because their deeds were evil." Agapao

John 12:42-43 "they did not confess him, lest they should be put out of the synagogue: For they LOVED the praise of men more than the praise of God." Agapao

Luke 6:32 "for sinners LOVE those that LOVE them." Agapao

2 Timothy 4:10 "For Demas hath forsaken me, having LOVED this present world..." Agapao

2 Peter 2:15 "Which have forsaken the right way, and are gone astray, following the way of Balaam to son of Bosor, who LOVED the wages of unrighteousness." Agapao

1 John 2:15 "If any man LOVE the world, the love of the Father is not in him." Agapao

It should be abundantly clear that the scholar who insists the word 'agape' means an unconditional, God-type love has no idea what he is talking about.

Well, what about phileo then? Does it always mean a friendship type of love and not the love of God?

John 16:27 "For the Father himself LOVETH you, because ye have LOVED me, and have believed that I came out from God." Phileo

Revelation 3:19 "As many as I LOVE, I rebuke and chasten: be zealous therefore and repent." Phileo

1 Corinthians 16:22 "If any man LOVE not the Lord Jesus Christ, let him be Anathema Maranatha." Phileo

Well, then do these two words actually mean the same thing? Let's compare some Scriptures.

Matthew 23:6 "LOVE the uppermost rooms at feasts" Phileo

Luke 11:43 " ye LOVE the uppermost seats in the synagogues" Agapao

John 5:20 "the Father LOVETH the Son" Phileo

John 10:17 "therefore doth my Father LOVE me" Agapao

Titus 2:4 "women to be sober, to LOVE their husbands..." Phileo

Ephesians 5:28 "So ought men to LOVE their wives..." Agapao

Hebrews 13:1 "Let brotherly LOVE continue" Phileo

1 Peter 2:17 "LOVE the brotherhood" Agapao

If it be asked: "Then why did God use two different Greek words (agapao and phileo) to often mean the same thing?", then we answer that God used not just two but six different Hebrew words in the Old Testament to refer to love.

The various Hebrew words translated as love are # 157, 1730, 2836, 5690, 7355, and 7474. Number 157 ah-hehv is used in Deut. 4:37 "because the Lord LOVED thy fathers", and in 1 Kings 3:3 "and Solomon LOVED the Lord", but the same word is also translated as "friends" and "lovers".

The Hebrew word # 1730 dohd is used in Proverbs 7:18 "let us take our fill of LOVE" and in Song of Solomon 4:10 "How fair is thy LOVE", but the same word is also translated as "uncle" in Leviticus 10:4; 20:20, and 1 Samuel 10:14-16 "Saul said unto his UNCLE..."

The Hebrew word # 2836 ghah-shak is used in Deut. 7:7 "The Lord did not SET HIS LOVE upon you, nor choose you, because ye were more in number than any people..." and in Isaiah 38:17 "but thou has IN LOVE to my soul delivered it from the pit of corruption." But the same Hebrew word can also mean "filleted" as in Ezekiel 27:17 "the court should be FILLETED with silver."

The Hebrew word # 5690 gagah-veem is used in Ezekiel 33:31 "with their mouth they shew MUCH LOVE". Number # 7355 rah-gham is found in Psalm 18:1 "I will LOVE thee, O Lord", but it also means "to shew mercy", to pity" and "to have compassion". See Exodus 33:19 and Psalm 103:13. In like manner the Hebrew word # 7474 rag-yah is used in Song of Solomon 6:4 "Thou art beautiful, MY LOVE." Six completely different Hebrew words, yet each of them can be used to express the same idea in certain contexts - "love"; yet most of these same words can mean other things in different contexts.

Don't let the Greek scholars steal your Bible from you or make you think they have inside information that you do not have if you only read the English of the King James Holy Bible. The believing Bible reader will often have far more spiritual understanding than the educated scholar who thinks he can correct or improve upon the Holy Bible God has given us.

 

[eternally-gratefull]

Hi EG. You got this silly and extremely ignorant example from some other Bible Agnostic's site.

No, I got it by studying the greek language and knowing what is going on. Stop listening to men, and find out the truth. And stop worshiping a text.

and since you started with a false accusation. don;t expect the rest to be answered!

 

[jimmydiggs]

Amen Brandplucked. Good point brother.


Daniel Wallace is one of the many Bible critics who has set up his own vain mind as his final authority. And the rendering that Daniel Wallace gave of Psalm 138:2 just distorts the truth which God intended in that verse of Scripture.

Daniel Wallace is messing with God's Book; he is changing the text to how he feels it should be written. And he is one of the many destructive textual critics who have changed the truth of God into a lie (Rom. 1:25).


These wicked and foolish men think that they are smarter than God. In their vain and puffed up minds, the Alexandrian scholars think that they can correct God.

The Bible prophesied in 2 Timothy 3 that these men would come in the last days. These wicked men are proud and highminded. And they refuse to submit to God's Authoritative word, which is the Authorized King James Bible.


These guys do not like the idea of submitting to a Perfect Written Final Authority that can judge them.

The proud, arrogant and foolish Alexandrian Scholars like James White, Doug Kutilek, and Daniel Wallace are the new protestant popes, and plenty of modern professing Christians love to have it so.


Who ever thought that the day would come when the majority of Christians would abandon the English Text of the Protestant Reformation and replace it with the Jesuit Rheims Greek text of Westcott and Hort. The very text that can be traced back to Alexandria, Egypt, which is the place where the altered and corrupted manuscripts and texts began to show up.


There indeed is a famine right now in the land of hearing the words of the LORD (Amos 8:11). Many pastors and preachers have forsaken God's holy word (the Authorized King James Version) and are now using the Vatican versions such as the NIV, ESV, NASB, Message, NLT, and Holman Christian Standard, etc.






It's really bad what's going on these days, and how many Christians no longer believe in the inerrancy and infallibility of the word of God. I looked up Psalm 138:2 in the most "up to date" NIV (2011 revision) and this is their new rendering that they gave:

I will bow down toward your holy temple and will praise your name for your unfailing love and your faithfulness, for you have so exalted your solemn decree that it surpasses your fame. (NIV 2011)


The confusion and madness just doesn't seem to end. The more these modern versions get revised, the worse they get.


This also is a fulfillment of the following Scriptures:


10 For the love of money is the root of all evil: which while some coveted after, they have erred from the faith, and pierced themselves through with many sorrows.- 1 Timothy 6:10 (KJV)


13 But evil men and seducers shall wax worse and worse, deceiving, and being deceived. - 2 Timothy 3:13 (KJV)

You should repent of using the KJV and starting using the ESV.

 

[brandplucked]

You should repent of using the KJV and starting using the ESV.

Hi Jimmydiggs. The ESV is the worst of the new Vatican Versions. Even worse than the NASB and perhaps even the NIV. Here are plenty of concrete examples showing why this is so.

The Ever Changing ESVs = just another Vatican Version

The ESV - Another King James Bible Believer

"He that hath ears to hear, let him hear." Luke 8:8

God bless.

 

[brandplucked]

Originally Posted by brandplucked

Hi EG. You got this silly and extremely ignorant example from some other Bible Agnostic's site.

No, I got it by studying the greek language and knowing what is going on. Stop listening to men, and find out the truth. And stop worshiping a text.

and since you started with a false accusation. don;t expect the rest to be answered!

Well, EG, if what I said was a false accusation as you say, then why don't you share your deep insights with the rest of us and tell us what these alleged FOUR different Greek words for "love" are and where they are found in the Greek New Testament. Then you can dazzle us with your display of exactly HOW they are different from one another and how not only the KJB, (according to your studying the Greek language) got it wrong, but so also did the ASV, NASB, RSV, NRSV, ESV, NIV, NKJV, Holman etc. etc.

I'm sure we would all richly benefit from your keen analysis of the subtle nuances that are lost to us poor rubes that have to settle for an inferior English translation. When can we expect to see these distinctions you have gleaned from your intense studies? Not gonna happen, you say? You're going to keep all this special knowledge to yourself?

 

[eternally-gratefull]

Originally Posted by brandplucked

Hi EG. You got this silly and extremely ignorant example from some other Bible Agnostic's site.




Well, EG, if what I said was a false accusation as you say, then why don't you share your deep insights with the rest of us and tell us what these alleged FOUR different Greek words for "love" are and where they are found in the Greek New Testament. Then you can dazzle us with your display of exactly HOW they are different from one another and how not only the KJB, (according to your studying the Greek language) got it wrong, but so also did the ASV, NASB, RSV, NRSV, ESV, NIV, NKJV, Holman etc. etc.

I'm sure we would all richly benefit from your keen analysis of the subtle nuances that are lost to us poor rubes that have to settle for an inferior English translation. When can we expect to see these distinctions you have gleaned from your intense studies? Not gonna happen, you say? You're going to keep all this special knowledge to yourself?

wow your joking right?

you never heard of eros love? I will give you as guess as to what it means.

then we have agape love

then phileo

then storge

As for examples.

in John 25.

Jesus asked peter if he agaped him, Peter could only say he phileo'd him. he asked again, do you agape me, Peter again said only phileo. Finally Jesus asked if he phileo'd him. Peter got angry.

yet in the KJV, it only says love..

could you explain these differences? or do you need me to do this also?

How about matt 5: 43-44. Love your neighbor and your enemy. WHich love was used? and what would be the difference if the other love was used??

Come on lets see how smart you are!!

 

[TannarDarr]

You should repent of using the KJV and starting using the ESV.

Why use the ESV when you have the NASB? Or the Net?

 

[TannarDarr]

wow your joking right?

you never heard of eros love? I will give you as guess as to what it means.

then we have agape love

then phileo

then storge

As for examples.

in John 25.

Jesus asked peter if he agaped him, Peter could only say he phileo'd him. he asked again, do you agape me, Peter again said only phileo. Finally Jesus asked if he phileo'd him. Peter got angry.

yet in the KJV, it only says love..

could you explain these differences? or do you need me to do this also?

How about matt 5: 43-44. Love your neighbor and your enemy. WHich love was used? and what would be the difference if the other love was used??

Come on lets see how smart you are!!

Agapao/agape can be used and has been used in every other words place.

 

[eternally-gratefull]

Agapao/agape can be used and has been used in every other words place.

lol, so much wrong with this post. It is obvious you do not know the differences in the types of love.

for one. You are changing the word of God. God inspired john to say peter only said phileo.. so your saying God made a mistake.

two. Eros love usually means lust. or sexual attraction. You can have eros. and not have agape of any type for a person.

three. You can not replace phileo love with the word agape. they are totally different types of love.

There is a reason Peter could only say he phileo'd Jesus. To change it to agape completely changes what Peter was feeling. And what God was trying to show us in his word with this conversation.

This is why I brought this up. Reading this in the greek changes what really happened in this conversation. And shows even greater the forgiveness and Agape love God has for us.. even when we can not say we agape him, for what ever reason.

 

[jimmydiggs]

The word "Word" (capitalized) appears 7 times in the Authorized Version. Now check this out. The word "JESUS" (all Capital letters) appears exactly 6 times in the Authorized Version. That is just amazing! Even the Bible numerical codes and patterns bear witness to the truth in Psalm 138:2.


Also, consider the following:

In the Authorized Version:

word (both lower case and capital) appears 697 times in the Authorized King James Version.

words appears 546 times.

word's appears 2 times.


All forms of this very word total up to 1,245 times.


Jesus (both lower case and capital) appears 973 times

Jesus' appears 10 times.

Totaling up to 983 times!


It is Absolutely incredible. The Numerical codes and patterns bear witness to the testimony of Scripture. They are in complete agreement.


And the fact that the modern versions have also changed words in Psalm 138:2 and corrupted it to say something else, just further shows that these modern day scholars, Bible critics and revisors do not have a high regard and reverence for the words of the living God.

In the ESV the word Jesus is used 1058 times.

That means the ESV has...

1058-983=75

75 times more Jesus in it than the KJV! You're using the wrong translation! Your translation has less Jesus than the one given to us to use, the only translation you should ever use, the ESV. It's absolutely incredible! The numbers never lie, every time you add up how much Jesus is in the ESV and compare it to how much Jesus is in the KJV, the ESV has more Jesus every time! The fact that the KJV changed the translation of the ESV is fact that the KJV has less Jesus too! It proves they aren't concerned with the word of God! The 1611 KJV is just a later revision of the 2003 ESV, intended to take Jesus out of the bible and lead people like you astray!

 

[zone]

Re: Psalm 138:2 Magnified thy word ABOVE all thy name

Hi chosen. And the fake bibles that NOBODY believes are the infallible words of God have messed up this verse as well as hundreds of others.


Psalm 138:2 Magnified thy word ABOVE all thy name

as in : YOU HAVE EXALTED YOUR KJV ABOVE ALL YOUR NAME."?
what difference does it make what the hebrew said - the KJV in english is the inspired word, isn't it

 

[jimmydiggs]

Why use the ESV when you have the NASB? Or the Net?

The KJV is just a later revision of the ESV, and a false one at that. The ESV is also proven to have more Jesus in it than the KJV.

 

[jimmydiggs]

1611 is the year the KJV was first authored.

945 AD is the year that Dunstan became the Archbishop of Canterbury.

1611-945=666

Clearly this means that the KJV is a plot by Dunston to make people take the mark of the beast, which is KJV-Onlyism.

Dunstan is involved in this how?

That's a picture taken with a poloroid camera of Dunstan playing the harp for the devil, when the devil came to chat and play cards.

 

[zone]

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[jimmydiggs]

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I got more coming.

 

[brandplucked]

wow your joking right?

you never heard of eros love? I will give you as guess as to what it means.

then we have agape love

then phileo

then storge

As for examples.

in John 25.

Jesus asked peter if he agaped him, Peter could only say he phileo'd him. he asked again, do you agape me, Peter again said only phileo. Finally Jesus asked if he phileo'd him. Peter got angry.

yet in the KJV, it only says love..

could you explain these differences? or do you need me to do this also?

How about matt 5: 43-44. Love your neighbor and your enemy. WHich love was used? and what would be the difference if the other love was used??

Come on lets see how smart you are!!

EG, neither eros nor storge are in the New Testament and there is NO difference in meaning between agape and phileo.

They tell us that such a case is found in the New Testament use of two distinct words for love - agape and phileo. You will constantly hear these scholarly types tell us that agape means God's unconditional love, while phileo means a friendship type of love.

Well, let's take a closer look at how God uses these two words and see if there is really something to what they say or not.

John 3:16 "God so loved the world that he gave his only begotten Son..." The verb used here is form of 'agape', so we are told it always means a God-type unconditional love. OK, but what do we then do with these verses using the same verb?

John 3:19 "And this is the condemnation, that light is come into the world, and men LOVED darkness rather than light, because their deeds were evil." Agapao

John 12:42-43 "they did not confess him, lest they should be put out of the synagogue: For they LOVED the praise of men more than the praise of God." Agapao

Luke 6:32 "for sinners LOVE those that LOVE them." Agapao

2 Timothy 4:10 "For Demas hath forsaken me, having LOVED this present world..." Agapao

2 Peter 2:15 "Which have forsaken the right way, and are gone astray, following the way of Balaam to son of Bosor, who LOVED the wages of unrighteousness." Agapao

1 John 2:15 "If any man LOVE the world, the love of the Father is not in him." Agapao

It should be abundantly clear that the scholar who insists the word 'agape' means an unconditional, God-type love has no idea what he is talking about.

Well, what about phileo then? Does it always mean a friendship type of love and not the love of God?

John 16:27 "For the Father himself LOVETH you, because ye have LOVED me, and have believed that I came out from God." Phileo

Revelation 3:19 "As many as I LOVE, I rebuke and chasten: be zealous therefore and repent." Phileo

1 Corinthians 16:22 "If any man LOVE not the Lord Jesus Christ, let him be Anathema Maranatha." Phileo

Well, then do these two words actually mean the same thing? Let's compare some Scriptures.

Matthew 23:6 "LOVE the uppermost rooms at feasts" Phileo

Luke 11:43 " ye LOVE the uppermost seats in the synagogues" Agapao

John 5:20 "the Father LOVETH the Son" Phileo

John 10:17 "therefore doth my Father LOVE me" Agapao

Titus 2:4 "women to be sober, to LOVE their husbands..." Phileo

Ephesians 5:28 "So ought men to LOVE their wives..." Agapao

Hebrews 13:1 "Let brotherly LOVE continue" Phileo

1 Peter 2:17 "LOVE the brotherhood" Agapao

If it be asked: "Then why did God use two different Greek words (agapao and phileo) to often mean the same thing?", then we answer that God used not just two but six different Hebrew words in the Old Testament to refer to love.

The various Hebrew words translated as love are # 157, 1730, 2836, 5690, 7355, and 7474. Number 157 ah-hehv is used in Deut. 4:37 "because the Lord LOVED thy fathers", and in 1 Kings 3:3 "and Solomon LOVED the Lord", but the same word is also translated as "friends" and "lovers".

The Hebrew word # 1730 dohd is used in Proverbs 7:18 "let us take our fill of LOVE" and in Song of Solomon 4:10 "How fair is thy LOVE", but the same word is also translated as "uncle" in Leviticus 10:4; 20:20, and 1 Samuel 10:14-16 "Saul said unto his UNCLE..."

The Hebrew word # 2836 ghah-shak is used in Deut. 7:7 "The Lord did not SET HIS LOVE upon you, nor choose you, because ye were more in number than any people..." and in Isaiah 38:17 "but thou has IN LOVE to my soul delivered it from the pit of corruption." But the same Hebrew word can also mean "filleted" as in Ezekiel 27:17 "the court should be FILLETED with silver."

The Hebrew word # 5690 gagah-veem is used in Ezekiel 33:31 "with their mouth they shew MUCH LOVE". Number # 7355 rah-gham is found in Psalm 18:1 "I will LOVE thee, O Lord", but it also means "to shew mercy", to pity" and "to have compassion". See Exodus 33:19 and Psalm 103:13. In like manner the Hebrew word # 7474 rag-yah is used in Song of Solomon 6:4 "Thou art beautiful, MY LOVE." Six completely different Hebrew words, yet each of them can be used to express the same idea in certain contexts - "love"; yet most of these same words can mean other things in different contexts.

Don't let the Greek scholars steal your Bible from you or make you think they have inside information that you do not have if you only read the English of the King James Holy Bible. The believing Bible reader will often have far more spiritual understanding than the educated scholar who thinks he can correct or improve upon the Holy Bible God has given us.

Regarding the passage in John 21 that is frequently the occasion of the scholar's assaults, Dr. Thomas Holland has these insightful words of encouragement.

http://www.purewords.org/kjb1611/html/lesson01.htm

Dr. Thomas Holland.

The question was asked: "When Jesus confronted Peter and thrice asked, 'Do you love me?' he used two different words in Greek, why wasn't this captured in the English translation?"

The passage is found in John 21:15-17 which reads as follows.

15: So when they had dined, Jesus saith to Simon Peter, Simon, son of Jonas, lovest thou me more than these? He saith unto him, Yea, Lord; thou knowest that I love thee. He saith unto him, Feed my lambs.

16: He saith to him again the second time, Simon, son of Jonas, lovest thou me? He saith unto him, Yea, Lord; thou knowest that I love thee. He saith unto him, Feed my sheep.

17: He saith unto him the third time, Simon, son of Jonas, lovest thou me? Peter was grieved because he said unto him the third time, Lovest thou me? And he said unto him, Lord, thou knowest all things; thou knowest that I love thee. Jesus saith unto him, Feed my sheep.

There are two different Greek words translated as love in this passage. One is agape and the other is phileo. According to the Greek text the first two times Jesus uses the word love He uses the Greek word agape. Both of these times Peter responds with phileo. On the third time, when Jesus speaks the word love, the word phileo is used by Christ. To this, Peter responds with phileo. Some suggest that the Greek word agape means a deeper love, while the Greek word phileo means friendship or affection.

The King James Bible is not alone in translating both words the same way. The standard Spanish translation is the Valera. What the KJV is to the English-speaking world, the Valera is to the Spanish- speaking world. Each time the Lord asks, "me amas?" to which Peter replies, "Si, Senor; tu sabes que te amo." In every case, the Spanish word for love is used, not two different words.

The standard French Bible is the Louis Segond. All three times the Lord uses the word, "m'aimes-tu," and Peter replies with "t'aime." It is the same French word for love.

The Italian Bible is the Giovanni Diodati. In the gospel according to Giovanni (John), the Italian word "amo" is used throughout the passage.

And, of course, Luther's German Bible uses the German word for love, which is, "lieber."

Even the NIV, NASV, NKJV, RV, ASV RSV, NRSV, ESV, TEV, and NEB translated both Greek words as love in this passage. So the KJV is not at all alone in its translation.

Most scholars teach the two different Greek words agape and phileo, mean two different things, or at the very least, two different types of love (such as, I love my wife and I love pizza). However, this does not bear itself out in the Greek New Testament. The simple fact is that these two words are used interchangeably, both meaning love. If phileo means friendship and not godly love, then why does Christ use it in Revelation 3:19? "As many as I love, I rebuke."

Both words mean love and are used interchangeably.

Finally, the real issues here was not the change of Greek words. Peter was not grieved because Christ had changed Greek words. He was grieved because he asked three times. It was not the change in words or tense that disturbed Peter. It was, "because he said unto him the third time, Lovest thou me?" Does not this passage in John 21 prove the point that agape and phileo are interchangeable? Jesus asks, "lovest (agape) thou me" (vs. 15), "lovest (agape) thou me" (vs. 16), and "lovest (phileo) thou me" (vs. 17). When Christ asks this last time, the texts states, "He saith unto him THE THIRD TIME" (vs.17). This is true only if these two words are interchangeable. If they are not interchangeable and carry different meanings, the text is in error, for it was not the third time. If the two words carry the same meaning, the text would be correct as it stands in the Greek manuscripts. (end of Dr. Holland's comments)

The simple reason the Lord Jesus asked Peter three times if he loved Him was because Peter had denied the Lord three times. Christ was restoring His wayward servant to fellowship with Himself.

You can also see an online article about these two different Greek words and their use in the Bible here

Truth and Song - Rick Schworer's Articles: Eight Hidden Doctrines We Can Learn From Agape and Phileo - The Pseudo-Scholars' Lie

Will Kinney

 

[TannarDarr]

lol, so much wrong with this post. It is obvious you do not know the differences in the types of love.

While it's hilarious, watching your pride run your piehole, it's not laughable. Do the leg work yourself. AGAPAO was used for sex more than once. It was used as Phileo more than once. It was used for an incestual rape act in the Septuagint. If you don't have the tools, or know how to find or use them, I'll help you. I know full well the differences in the words, in this case it's you who's running their mouth to shame themselves.

l
for one. You are changing the word of God. God inspired john to say peter only said phileo.. so your saying God made a mistake.

Well, that's pretty brazen of you. Since you don't even know where and why I base my comments on, yet you can accuse me of changing God's word. You are truly shameless aren't you. Why don't you stop posing as the big bad king of the hill, and stop embarrassing yourself and walk WITH people not at them?So the sisters sent word to Him, saying, “Lord, behold, he whom You love is sick.”<<<< love there is Phileo. "GOD'S LOVE" was Phileo. digest that.
2 Pet 2:15 (NIV) who loved [agapao] the wages of wickedness.<<<< does that fit into your theology?
[TABLE="class: bibleTable, width: 100%"]
[TR="class: bVerse"]
[TD="bgcolor: #F8F8DA"]2Ti 4:10
[/TD]
[TD="bgcolor: #F8F8DA"]for Demas, having loved G25 this present fnworld, has deserted me and gone to Thessalonica; Crescens has gone to fnGalatia, Titus to Dalmatia.
[/TD]
[/TR]
[/TABLE]
[TABLE="class: bibleTable, width: 100%"]
[TR="class: bVerse"]
[TD="bgcolor: #F8F8DA"] 2Pe 2:15
[/TD]
[TD="bgcolor: #F8F8DA"]forsaking the right way, they have gone astray, having followed the way of Balaam, the son of Beor, who loved G25 the wages of unrighteousness;
[/TD]
[/TR]
[/TABLE]

two. Eros love usually means lust. or sexual attraction. You can have eros. and not have agape of any type for a person.

Yeah, raping your sister, what sorta love is that? Septuagint translated it as agapao.

three. You can not replace phileo love with the word agape. they are totally different types of love.

[TABLE="class: bibleTable, width: 614"]
[TR]
[TD]Jhn 5:20
[/TD]
[TD]“For the Father loves the Son, and shows Him all things that He Himself is doing; and the Father will show Him greater works than these, so that you will marvel.
[/TD]
[/TR]
[/TABLE]
That one is Phileo, not Agapao.

There is a reason Peter could only say he phileo'd Jesus. To change it to agape completely changes what Peter was feeling. And what God was trying to show us in his word with this conversation.

The diff in phileo and agapao has nothing to do with feeling. IF IT DOES then God was only fond of His Son, in the JOhn 5 vs above. Do you ever slow down from being right all the time to consider and research something before you speak? You've already answered, don't bother.

This is why I brought this up. Reading this in the greek changes what really happened in this conversation. And shows even greater the forgiveness and Agape love God has for us.. even when we can not say we agape him, for what ever reason.

A great example of a little information goes a long way....



......down the wrong road.

 

[TannarDarr]

The KJV is just a later revision of the ESV, and a false one at that. The ESV is also proven to have more Jesus in it than the KJV.

Next time you order Pizza don't get mushrooms.

 

[Brother_Don]

i believe my KJV, and thats the translation that has helped me learn. I don't idolize the KJV, i read it and study it. Keep throwing stones if you want to, but Jesus gets the final word, and nothing man says or does won't knock me off this rock.

 

[thecreationtutor]

Allow me to address this charge of idolatry with two main points. First, neither I nor any King James Bible believer I have ever run into worships our Bible. I do not have an altar set up in my home complete with incense and burning candles where I bow down and pray to my King James Bible. I don’t do that, nor does anyone else I know.

while in many cultures - this sort of thing happens candles and bowing down to - in America and western cultures we have a different form of worship of things

What do you set your affections on?
What do you spend most of your time defending?
What do you spend your money on, your thoughts on, etc
What do you place before God and God's people and unity


These are better questions about idolatry unless we only think that Idols are little carved statues that we make with human hands, not other work made by human hands